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Braindumps for "HP0-762" Exam

NonStop Kernel Platform Support

 Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com has a new application that needs to be tested against the TM/MP protected production database. 

Prior to testing, what should the user do?

A. Add online dumps to the TM/MP catalog with the TMFCOM add dumps * command.
B. Issue the FUP purge data command to delete the affected records.
C. Issue the TMFCOM info dumps * command to verify valid dumps exist.
D. Move the data files to disk volumes with the most free space.

Answer: C

Question 2.
What do you use to bring an audited file back to a consistent state?

A. SQLCI; initialize sql
B. TMFCOM; backup process
C. TMFCOM; recover files
D. TMFCOM; stop transactions

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which commands start INSPECT from a TACL prompt? Select TWO.

A. RUN INSPECT or INSPECT
B. gtacl -p inspect
C. RUND program
D. run -debug -inspect=on program
E. INSPECT -START

Answer: A, C

Question 4.
Which pax command issued at an osh prompt unpacks OSS files from 
$SYSTEM.ZOSSUTL.T0248PAX?

A. pax -r -f /G/SYSTEM/ZOSSUTL/T0248PAX
B. pax T0248PAX
C. pax -r=$SYSTEM.ZOSSUTL.T0248PAX
D. pax -f T0248PAX

Answer: A

Question 5.
What is NOT used for online system changes?

A. DSM/SCM
B. Wan Wizard Pro
C. SCF
D. SYSGENR

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which SRLs support Native Mode Non Stop Kernel products?

A. public
B. sysgenable
C. Microsoft
D. unlinked

Answer: A

Question 7.
To enable a backup disk process to take over, the primary disk process

A. mirrors
B. clones
C. duplicates
D. performs checkpoints

Answer: D

Question 8.
According to the support model, "relief" is

A. a permanent fix that is delivered to the customer
B. a temporary measure that can include a workaround or a risk assessment
C. confirmation from the customer the system is operational
D. the point in time which the support center is contacted

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which software and utilities are required in the system to use SQL/MP? Select TWO.

A. TS/MP
B. SQL conversational interface (SQLCI)
C. Nonstop Java Client
D. Fast Sort software
E. Parallel TCP/IP

Answer: B, D

Question 10.
Before loading a new release of the OS you should

A. receive software into the archive
B. save the existing configuration database
C. create a software input or product group
D. change the software input description

Answer: B

Question 11.
Where do you research an OS upgrade?

A. current release softdocs
B. account SE
C. TIM documentation
D. Infoway service

Answer: C

Question 12.
Where can you find information about recently discovered problems that can cause an outage?

A. TIPS
B. TWS
C. TIM online NSK Support collection
D. Customer Services Guide

Answer: C

Question 13.
Which tool automatically gathers AI (Additional Information) about a problem to send to the GCSC?

A. GRT
B. SPTOOL
C. TFDS
D. RCVDUMP

Answer: C

Question 14.
The RDF extractor process

A. reads the image trail to find audit information associated with committed transactions and to  
    apply that information to data volumes
B. provides the user interface for issuing RDF commands
C. sorts the audit information and writes it to the appropriate image trail
D. reads the audit trail and sends all audit information to a receiver process on the backup system

Answer: D

Question 15.
PTRACE displays formatted header data at the beginning of each trace data record. 

What information is NOT included?

A. time the trace record was captured
B. date the trace record was captured
C. delta time from the previous record
D. total record count

Answer: D

Question 16.
What item creates an A0CINFO file?

A. SWID
B. INITENV
C. CNFGINFO
D. ZPHIRNM

Answer: C

Question 17.
Which items are NOT monitored by PEEK? Select TWO.

A. destination information
B. send instructions
C. router activity
D. paging activity
E. interrupt conditions

Answer: A, C

Question 18.
Which utility decompresses an IPM downloaded from IPM Scout?

A. DCOM
B. SWARCSET
C. FUP
D. UNPAK

Answer: B

Question 19.
Which command used by TM/MP copies audited files to either disk or tape?

A. dump files
B. recover files
C. relocate diskdumps
D. copy files

Answer: A

Question 20.
What is the Guardian equivalent for the OSS command "cp"?

A. fup give
B. fup dup
C. fup secure
D. fup purge

Answer: B


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Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


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Braindumps for "1Z0-030" Exam

Oracle 9i: New Features For Administrators

 Question 1.
For the best performance, what should be done with blocks transferred using the Cache Fusion algorithm in a Real Application Clusters database?

A.	They should be transferred across a high-speed cluster interconnect.
B.	They should be written to disk by the sending instance and read from disk by the receiving instance.
C.	They should be granted, by the Global Cache Service, an exclusive mode resource for each instance involved.
D.	They should be transferred through the cache area of the Global Resource Director on the instance where the block is mastered.

Answer:  C

Explanation: 
Oracle 9i real application clusters Cache fusion introduced more robust and accurate concepts to manage collaboration between multiple instances. The Global Cache Service now handles the management functions that had been handled by the DML in the early versions of the Oracle cluster software releases. It maintains block modes for blocks in the global role and is responsible for block transfers among instances. In 9i the Global Cache element is an Oracle–Specific data structure representing a Cache fusion Resource. The Global Cache Service (GCS) handles the coordination of any changed blocks. By default, each data block in an instance's buffer cache is protected by the Global Cache Service

Question 2.
Consider this RMAN command:

RMAN> CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY
P> TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS;

What does the command accomplish?

A.	Established the fixed number of backups that must be kept for media recovery.
B.	Establishes the fixed number of backups required to perform media recovery with 7 days.
C.	Sets the fixed number of days that backups are held for media recovery.
D.	Ensures that sufficient backups and logs will be kept so that a point-in-time recovery to any time in the last 7 days is possible

Answer:   C

Explanation:  
To ensure that backups will be kept for at least seven days for media recovery, you should use this CONFIGURE command:
           CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS;

The CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY command creates a persistent backup retention policy. With a backup retention policy, RMAN considers backups and copies of data files and control files as obsolete based on the options specified in the CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY command. When backups become obsolete, you can view them using the REPORT OBSOLETE command or delete them using the DELETE OBSOLETE command. This is not the same as a backup expiration. RMAN only flags a backup as expired when it performs a crosscheck and determines that a file is missing or not found. Obsolete files may remain intact until you issue the DELETE OBSOLETE command. With the CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY command, you have two methods for specifying the retention policy, either by stating a recovery window using the TO RECOVERY WINDOW keywords or by stating how many redundant backups you wish to keep using the TO REDUNDANCY keywords. These options are mutually exclusive. The RECOVERY WINDOW parameter of the CONFIGURE command specifies the number of days between the current time and the earliest point of recoverability. Backups do not become obsolete until they fall outside of the recovery window. Recovery Window establishes a period of time within which a point-in-time recovery must be possible. 

Question 3.
To increase the availability of an Advanced Replication environment, you can add a new master to a replication group without quiescing the group. This is achieved__________

A.	Only when the new master site already has existing replication groups.
B.	By issuing a single command to create, populate, and activate the new master.
C.	When the master definition site is not the same for all of the master groups.
D.	Without impacting end users who are executing data manipulation language (DML) commands on the replicated tables.

Answer: D

Explanation:
You can either add new master sites to a master group that is running normally or to a master group that is quiesced. If the master group is not quiesced, then users can perform data manipulation language (DML) operations on the data while the new master sites are being added. However, more administrative actions are required when adding new master sites if the master group is not quiesced.

Question 4.
Examine this statement, which creates a Cartesian product of the COUNTRIES and REGION tables:

SQL> SELECT c.country_name,
2> r.region_name
3> FROM countries c, region r;

Oracle 9i SQL: 1999 syntax supports the same functionality with which join type?

A.	Equijoin
B.	Cross join
C.	Merge join
D.	Natural join

Answer:  B

Explanation:
In Oracle 9i Cross-join is used to create an intentional Cartesian product by joining all rows in one table to all rows in another table.

Question 5.
Which three table transformations can be done by using online redefinition of tables? (Choose three).

A.	delete rows
B.	rename a column
C.	change a heap table to an index-organized table
D.	change the data type of a column from LONG to BLOB
E.	change the data type of a column from DATE to CHAR

Answer:  B, C & D

Explanation:
Online table redefinition enables you to: Move the table to a different table space in the same schema .Add or drop partitioning support. Re-create the table to reduce fragmentation. Change the organization of a normal table (heap organized) to an index-organized table and vice versa Add or drop a column and to change the datatype from LONG to BLOB.

Question 5(Similar).
Which three table transformations can be done using online redefinition of tables? (Choose three.)

A.	delete rows
B.	drop a column
C.	change a heap table to an index-organized table
D.	change the data type of a column from LONG to BLOB
E.	change a range-partitioned table to a list-partitioned table.

Answer:   B, C & D

Explanation:
Online table redefinition enables you to Move the table to a different table space in the same schema .Add or drop partitioning support. Re-create the table to reduce fragmentation. Change the organization of a normal table (heap organized) to an index-organized table and vice versa also add or drop a column and to change the datatype from LONG to BLOB.

Question 6.
What must you do to enable Automated SQL Execution Memory Management?

A.	Execute the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SYSTEM_STATS procedure with appropriate value.
B.	Set the instance parameters PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and WORKAREA_SIZE POLICY to appropriate values.
C.	Set the instance parameter SORT_AREA_SIZE, BITMAP_MERGE_AREA_SIZE, CREATE_BITMAP_AREA_SIZE, HASH_AREA_SIZE,SORT_AREA_SIZE, and SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE all to AUTO.
D.	Unset the instance parameters SORT_AREA_SIZE, BITMAP_MERGE_AREA_SIZE, CREATE_BITMAP_AREA_SIZE_HASH_AREA_SIZE, SORT_AREA_SIZE, and SORT_AREA_RETAINED SIZE.

Answer:  B

Explanation:
Oracle 9i offers the option of automated PGA space management. Two new parameters have been introduced to allow the DBA to have the PGA configured dynamically by the RDBMS software removing the responsibility from the DBA. These two parameters are:

1. pga_aggregate_target
2. workarea_size_policy

PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET or the WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY initialization parameter must be specified is incorrect because both parameters must be set. However, the default of the
WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY parameter depends on the setting of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET. If PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET contains a value, then WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY defaults to AUTO. So, specifying only the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET would be successful, but if you attempt to set the WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY prior to setting PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET, you will receive an "ORA-04032: pga_aggregate_target must be set before switching to auto mode" error.

Question 7.
When querying the new V$SPPARAMETER view, the column ISSPECIFIED displays the value TRUE for a number of a parameter. What does this means?

A.	The value for the parameters is TRUE
B.	The parameters are specified in the PFILE parameter file.
C.	The parameters are specified in the SPFILE parameter file.
D.	Changes to the parameters are only in the currently running instance.

Answer:  C

Explanation:
V$SPPARAMETER purpose is to allow the DBA to view the setting of the parameters in the instance SPFILE. The ISSPECIFIED column has a value of TRUE if the parameter was specified in the SPFILE.

Question 8.
Examine the following parameter settings from an initialization (init.ora) file:
	DB_CREATE_FILE DEST	=	‘/u01/oradata/’
	DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1	=	‘/u02/oradata/’
	DB_CREATE_ONLIN_LOG_DEST_2	=	‘/u03/oradata/’

If you create an Oracle Managed Files (OMF) database using these settings, what is the results?

A.	The data files, temp files, and control file will be on device /u01; one online redo log group will be on device /u02; another redo log group will be on device /u03.
B.	The data files and temp files will be on device /u01; one copy of the control file and one online redo log group will be on device /u02; another copy of the control file and a second redo log group will be on device /u03.
C.	The data files, temp files, online redo log files, and control file will be on device /u01; multiplexed copies of the archive log files will be created; one set on device /u02, and another set on device /u03.
D.	The data files and temp files will be on device /u01; one copy of the control file and the first member in each online redo log group will be on device /u02; another copy of the control file and a second member of each redo log group will be on device /u03.

Answer:   D

Explanation:
The db_create_file_dest parameter defines the file system where OMF and Temp files are to be located. where as db_create_online_log_dest_n parameter defines the file system location  where Oracle managed online redo logs files and control files are to be created. The n Value is replaced by a number 1-5.This allows for up to 5 multiplexed copies of each redo log group member, and up to 5 copies of the control files to be created on separate derives. 

Question 9.
Examine the statement:
	ALTER TABLE sales
	EXCHANGE PARTITION q1_2000
	WITH TABLE sales_q1_2000
	UPDATE GLOBAL INDEXES
	PARALLEL (DEGREE 4);
What is the result of the statement?

A.	All valid global indexes on the SALES table will retain their USABLE status after the statement completes.
B.	Nonpartitioned indexes on the SALES table will be marked UNUSABLE, while valid partitioned global and local indexes will retain their USABLE status.
C.	Valid indexes on the exchanged table SALES_Q1_2000 will remain in the USABLE state, while all indexes associated with the new partition Q1_2000, will be marked UNUSABLE, including any global indexes on SALES.
D.	Global indexes on the SALES table will be maintained concurrently with the exchange operation if the statement executes with the desired degree of parallelism (four) otherwise it will execute serially and mark the global indexes UNUSABLE.

Answer:   A

Explanation:
By default, many table maintenance operations on partitioned tables invalidate i.e. mark UNUSABLE global indexes. You must then rebuild the entire global index or, if  partitioned, all of its partitions. Oracle enables you to override this default behavior if you specify UPDATE GLOBAL INDEXES in your ALTER TABLE statement for the maintenance operation it tells Oracle to update the global index at the time it executes the maintenance operation DDL statement. The entire global index is updated in conjunction with the base table operation. You are not required to later and independently rebuild the global index.

Question 10.
You use the TABLESPACE option of the Export command to export, not transport, the contents of a set of tablespaces. What are the only contents of the dump file?

A.	1. non-partitioned tables in the tablespace set
2. partitioned tables that have all their partitions in the tablespace set
3. indexes on all the exported tables
B.	1. non-partitioned tables in the tablespace set
2. partitioned tables that have at least one partition in the tablespace set
3. indexes on all the exported tables
C.	1. non-partitioned tables in the tablespace set
2. partitioned tables that have all their partitions in the tablespace set
3. indexes on the exported tables if the indexes are in the tablespace set or have at least one partition in the tablespace set.
D.	1. non-partitioned tables in the tablespace set
2. partitioned tables that have at least one partition in the tablespace set
3. tables (including all partitions, if they exist) that have an index in the tablespace set
4. indexes on all the exported tables

Answer:  B

Explanation:
In oracle 9i when a TABLESPACE parameter is used with the export utility then all tables included in the tablespace including table those have one partition in the tablespace are exported and all indexes on exported weather they are in that tablespace or in any other tablespace will be exported to the dump file.Non-partitioned tables and partitioned tables and all indexes in the table can be exported through dump file.


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