Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us

 Home

 Search

Latest Brain Dumps

 BrainDump List

 Certifications Dumps

 Microsoft

 CompTIA

 Oracle

  Cisco
  CIW
  Novell
  Linux
  Sun
  Certs Notes
  How-Tos & Practices 
  Free Online Demos
  Free Online Quizzes
  Free Study Guides
  Free Online Sims
  Material Submission
  Test Vouchers
  Users Submissions
  Site Links
  Submit Site

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Online Training Demos and Learning Tutorials for Windows XP, 2000, 2003.

 

 

 

 





Braindumps for "1Z0-301" Exam

Oracle9iAS: Basic Administrations

 Question 1.
You are managing a catalog Web site for your company. An important cacheable document, sale_items.html, has been updated by the Web developers. The correct version of this document needs to be presented to your many Web customers as quickly as possible. You verify that the document is in the cache and the status is valid. 

Using the Oracle9iAS Web Cache home page, what could be done to achieve this?

A. No action is necessary.
B. The updated document will automatically be reloaded the next time it is requested.
C. Use the content invalidation mechanism, enter the path, and remove it from the cache so it will 
    be reloaded the next time it is requested.
D. Select the old version of the document in the cache and click the Reload Now command 
     button.
E. Update the Cacheability Rules and mark the document as Not Cacheable, so that the current  
    version of the document will be read from the file system the next time it is requested.

Answer: B

Question 2.
You set the Trusted Subnets in Oracle9iAS Web Cache Security to "This Machine Only". 

What is permitted?

A. All requests from the host machine only.
B. Caching content from applications running on the same host only.
C. All requests from the subnet in which the host machine is located.
D. Administration and invalidation requests from the host machine only.

Answer: D

Question 3.
Exhibit:

 

You want to deploy a J2EE application to your remote application server machine. Your J2EE application consists of Web modules and is packaged in the file company. ear, which is stored locally on your PC. The application should be administered under the name company-test and the application should be accessible as my company app. 

Which three are necessary to deploy your J2EE application? (Choose three)

A. The Deployment Wizard walks you through several deployment specific tasks. The two steps 
     of the Deployment Wizard are not sufficient to deploy your J2EE application. You have to go  
     through all steps and enter the needed information.
B. The application has to be assembled correctly as an Enterprise Archive (EAR) file, with all the 
     needed application and module deployment descriptors.
C. The Deployment Wizard walks you through several deployment specific tasks but the 
     information given during those two steps of the Deployment Wizard is sufficient to deploy your 
    J2EE application.
D. It is not necessary that the application is assembled as an Enterprise Archive (EAR) file with all 
    the application and module deployment descriptors, because the Deployment Wizard will 
    detect this and assemble a valid EAR file automatically.
E. Enter the following at step 1 and 2 of the Deployment Wizard page: J2EE Application: Enter 
    the path to the company.ear file. Application Name: Enter company-test. Map to URL: Enter 
    /mycompanyapp.
F. Copy the company.ear file to your application server machine. Enter the following at step 1 and  
    2 of the Deployment Wizard page: J2EE Application: Enter /mycompanyapp Application Name: 
    Enter the path to the simpl.ear. Map to URL: Enter /company-test.

Answer: F, ?, ?

Question 4.
An application developer provides you with the Login Servlet.class file and informs you that the servlet needs to connect to your production database. As a Web Administrator, you are responsible for configuring the appropriate data source. No data sources have been configured up to now. 

Which three are true regarding enabling the servlet to connect to the database?
(Choose three)

A. You can use the preinstalled data source and customize it appropriately for your needs.
B. To use the preinstalled data source you first need to delete the  entries.
C. If it is a global data source that applies to all applications, the data source is configured at the 
    application level for this application.
D. Global data sources are specified in the data-sources.xml file and application can refer to that.
E. If it is a local data source that applies to only this application, the data source is configured at 
    the application level for this application.
F. Data sources are defined in the application.xml file and your application can know about those 
    data sources only if the data-sources.xml file knows about it.

Answer: C, D, E

Question 5.
Exhibit:

Add Handler cgi-script .cgi

SSLEngine Off

SSLEngine On

...virtual host directives
Add Handler server-parsed .shtml



Examine the configuration example taken from httpd.conf. A  container can enclose almost any directive acceptable to the main server. 

Which three statements are true? (Choose three)

A. The  container allows Server-Side Includes (SSI) for this virtual host only.
B. CGI scripts can be executed only from the main server, not from the  container 
     even if the URL resolves to a file within /home/public/cgi-bin.
C. The usage of the Secure Sockets Layer (SSI) protocol can be defined only at the main server 
     level. The settings in the  container will have no effect because the main server  
     setting is off.
D. The  container specifies a relative URL, and does not allow Server-Side Includes to 
    be executed from this virtual host.
E. CGI scripts enabled in the main server are executable also from the  container if 
    the URL resolves to a file within /home/public/cgi-bin.
F. It is possible to define the usage of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) on a virtual host basis or to 
    override main server configuration settings.

Answer: A, B, F

Question 6.
How is the failure of an OPMN process handled?

A. Dcmctl is responsible for monitoring OPMN, and restarts the process if it fails.
B. If the OPMN process fails it must be started manually, or you must configure an OEM event to 
    check and restart it.
C. There is a shadow process to the OPMN process that is responsible for checking its health 
     and restarting OPMN in case of a failure.
D. OC4J instances ping the OPMN process monitoring them, In case of the failure of the OPMN 
     process, the OHS instance that was the first installed on this node attempts to restart OPMN.
E. Oracle HTTP Server Instances ping the OPMN process monitoring them. In case of the failure 
     of the OPMN process, the OHS instance that was the first installed on this node attempts to  
    restart OPMN.

Answer: C

Question 7.
Where is metadata information of the OID server stored?
Attribute options
Application attribute
Operational attribute
Structural object class

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which mod_plsql directive protects procedures, packages, or schemas from being directly executed from a browser?
PlsqlDefaultPage
PlsqlPathAliasProcedure
PlsqlExclusionList
PlsqlBeforeProcedure

Answer: C

Question 9.
You are managing an Oracle9iAS Instance that has been configured to work with the Oracle Internet Directory for centralized password administration. Password for your authorized end users have been established. An end user wishes to change their password. 

Which statement is correct?

A. Any end user can change their own password.
B. Only the Web Administrator can change end user passwords.
C. Only the Infrastructure Database Administrator can change end user passwords.
D. Only the Web Administrator or Infrastructure Database Administrator can change end user 
     passwords.

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which three directives are allowed only in a server level context and not in any other context?
(Choose three)

A. Include
B. Server Name
C. Server Root
D. Max Clients
E. Server Admin
F. Document Root
G. Directory Includes

Answer: C, E,?

Question 11.
Which Oracle9iAS capabilities require an Infrastructure? (Choose all that apply)

A. Single Sign-On
B. Application Server Clusters
C. All Oracle9iAS installation types
D. Oracle9iAS Web Cache Clusters
E. Invoking PL/SQL code via Database Access Descriptors

Answer: A, B, D

Question 12.
Most J2EE applications, servlets as well as JSPs and EJBs, need to communicate with the database. 

Which two are true regarding data sources? (Choose two)

A. J2EE applications use JNDI to look up Data Source objects.
B. J2EE applications retrieve connections to the database through Data Source objects.
C. Data Source objects include the mapping between the logical database connection and the 
    physical database information.
D. J2EE applications retrieve database connections from the application code itself, that includes 
    the physical database information.

Answer: B, C

Question 13.
When stopping the Infrastructure instance, which option is correct?

A. Stopping the Infrastructure will stop all of the Oracle9iAS Application Server instances that use 
     it.
B. You should stop the Infrastructure first, and then stop all of the Oracle9iAS Application Server 
     instances that use it.
C. You should first stop all of the Oracle9iAS Application Server Instances that use the 
     Infrastructure, then stop the Infrastructure.
D. Stopping the Infrastructure does not affect the Oracle9iAS Application Server instances that 
    use it.

Answer: C

Question 14.
Which process of an Oracle9iAS Instance is responsible for managing and tracking the process in the Instance, as well as propagating events among other Instances in the Farm?

A. DCM
B. OPMN
C. OC4J
D. The OHS Parent process
E. An OHS Child process

Answer: B

Question 15.
Which six correctly match the item to its description? (Choose six)

A. Dispatcher: Listens for LDAP requests.
B. LDAP server process: Processes LDAP requests.
C. Dispatcher: Sends changes to other OID nodes.
D. Oracle Director Manager: Displays configuration sets.
E. OID Replication process: Sends changes to other OID nodes.
F. LDAP server process: Initiates and terminates OID server processes.
G. OID Control Utility: Accepts commands to start and stop OID instances.

Answer: F


Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Braindumps: Dumps for 220-702 Exam Brain Dump

Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us





Braindumps for "220-702" Exam

CompTIA A+ Practical Application

 Question 1.
A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. A virus has infected the system
B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file
C. Corrupt MBR
D. Boot sector corruption

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Master Boot Record (MBR) is the operating system information stored in the first sector of  any hard disk .It locates and loads the operating system into the computer's main storage or random access memory. If for any reason, the Master Boot Record becomes damaged or corrupt, then the operating system will be unable to load and the message Error loading operating system will be displayed.

Question 2.
A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. 

Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?

A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.
B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.
C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.
D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.

Answer: B

Question 3.
A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. 

Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?

A. Cable tester
B. Multimeter
C. Loop back plugs
D. Crossover cable

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cable tester is a simple instrument that can help in detecting mis -wired and incomplete network cables. A multimeter is used to test the voltage, a loop back plug is used to test the loopback connectivity of a device and the crossover cable is used to connect two network devices.

Question 4.
Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting?

A. Use recovery console and thefixmbr command.
B. Use recovery console and thebootcfg /rebuild command.
C. Use recovery console and thefixboot command.
D. Use recovery console and thechkdsk command.

Answer: C

Question 5.
A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they are unable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets the following output: IP
address169.254.2.4
Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0
Default Gateway.

Which of the following could be causing the issue?

A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured.
B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer.
C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server.
D. The default gateway is not specified.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The problem here is the inability of DHCP client to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. One of the most common DHCP server problems is the failure of clients to obtain configuration from a working server, which results in such connection issues.

Question 6.
A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. The system has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higher than normal activity when opening large files. 

Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose and troubleshoot this problem?

A. Task Manager
B. NTBACKUP
C. FDISK
D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: D

Explanation:
To fix the problem, in this case you should use the Disk Defragmenter. It is a computer program designed to increase access speed of files by rearranging them on the disk so that they occupy contiguous storage locations. The purpose defragmenting is to optimize the time taken to read and write files to/from the disk and maximizing the transfer rate.

Question 7.
A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. 

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. A dead CMOS battery
B. The OS is not installed on the hard drive
C. A faulty RAM
D. A faulty HDD connection

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the problem is the faulty HDD connection. This error occurs when the Master boot record (MBR) is not found on the system. The MBR is present on the first sector of the hard disk. In this case the system is unable to get the MBR due to the faulty HDD connection 

Question 8.
A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

A. They are using the wrong WEP key.
B. They have been infected with malware.
C. They have lost Internet connectivity.
D. They need to update their network device drivers.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When your computer is affected with a malware then you will not be able to change the home page of the web browser of your computer. This is because malware prevents you from doing that. Every time you try to change it, you will be redirected to another page. This is one of the most common symptoms of a spyware infected computer.

Question 9.
A technician needs to check which ports are open in the Windows Firewall. 

Which of the following will allow the technician to view these settings?

A. netsh firewall show logging
B. ipconfig /all
C. netsh firewall show state
D. arp -a

Answer: C

Explanation:
To find out the ports open in the Windows Firewall, you need to use netsh firewall show state command. This command ishows current state of Windows Firewall and you can see the state of all the ports. 

Question 10.
Which of the following are methods to automatically update the antivirus application? (Select TWO).

A. Establish rules in the email scheduling program to perform updates.
B. Select Update Now from the program options.
C. Use the Automatic Update feature built into the application.
D. Use scripts.
E. Use Windows Update.

Answer: C, D



Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Study Guides and Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA





              Privacy Policy                   Disclaimer                    Feedback                    Term & Conditions

www.helpline4IT.com

ITCertKeys.com

Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.