|
Question 1. If an application uses hard-coded system names in code and data, which action should be taken? Select TWO. A. Nothing as RDF will change the data in-flight. B. The application should be rewritten using open source. C. The database records should have the system name removed. D. The code should be changed to use shared run-time libraries (SRLs). E. The source code should be modified to use ASSIGNS and or DEFINES. Answer: C, E Question 2. After you had executed a planned switchover to an RDF backup site, and when your primary system has come back online, you would use the RDF INITIALIZE command to prepare a new RDF subsystem to replicate all audit generated on the backup system since the switchover back to the original primary system. Which command would you use? A. INITIALIZE RDF, INITTIME 09APR2004 10:05 B. INITIALIZE RDF, TIMESTAMP 09APR2004 10:05 C. INITIALIZE RDF, SYNCHDBTIME 09APR2004 10:05 D. INITIALIZE RDF, BACKUPSYSTEMAnswer: A Question 3. Which commands guarantee that the backup system database is logically consistent? Select TWO. A. STOP TMF B. STOP RDF C. STOP UPDATE, D. STOP UPDATE Answer: A, C Question 4. When designing an application to be protected by RDF, what should be considered? A. changes to the application source code B. changes to the application object code C. changes to the operational procedures D. changes to the user interfaces Answer: C Question 5. Under which circumstance could a transaction that committed on the primary system be undone on the backup system during an RDF takeover operation? A. You have a MAT-only RDF environment; RDF got the commit on the backup system, but it did not receive all data audit associated with the transaction. B. You have a MAT and auxiliary audit RDF environment; RDF got the commit of an Enscribe create operation on the backup system, but it never received audit record for the create. C. You have a MAT and auxiliary audit RDF environment; RDF got the commit associated with an insert, but it never received the insert of the operation. D. You have a MAT and auxiliary audit RDF environment; RDF got the commit associated with a stop-updater audit record, but it never received the stop updater operation. Answer: C Question 6. RDF was started with UPDATE OFF. What is the potential consequence if the updaters are not started? A. The purger process will purge image trail files that are necessary for a TAKEOVER if the RETAINCOUNT is met. B. TMF may disable the beginning of new transactions on the primary system. C. It may become necessary to configure overflow space for the RDF image trails. D. If the image trail disks become full, RDF will shut down. Answer: B Question 7. In a triple contingency environment, the RDF COPYAUDIT command copies _______. A. the TMF audit trail files to the backup system B. image information from one backup system to the other backup system C. and updates the missing transactions to the second backup database D. the primary TMF audit settings to the backup TMF configuration Answer: B Question 8. What is a result of issuing the STOP RDF command? A. Audit trail files on the primary system pinned by RDF stay pinned. B. The backup database is closed and left in a consistent state. C. The backup database is closed and left in an inconsistent state. D. Audit trail files on the primary system pinned by RDF are unpinned. Answer: B Question 9. What are the ramifications of running RDF with UPDATE OFF? A. The receivers and purger run on the backup system. B. Only the purger runs on the backup system. C. TMF must be running on both primary and backup systems. D. No RDF components run on either primary or backup system. Answer: A Question 10. What happens when the UPDATERRTDWARNING threshold is breached? A. An EMS event is generated on the RDF backup system. B. An EMS event will be generated only if an RDFCOM STATUS RTDWARNING command is executed. C. An EMS event will be generated only if an RDFCOM STATUS RTDWARNING or an RDFCOM STATUS RDF command is executed. D. An EMS event is generated on the RDF primary system. Answer: B
|
Question 1. A QoS STA is permitted to send which frame types of a Hybrid Coordinator? A. QoS Data + CF-ACK + CF-Poll B. Data + CF - Poll C. QoS Null D. PS-Poll E. CF-End + CF -Ack Answer: C, D Question 2. WMM-PS trigger frames can be what type of IEEE 802.11 frames? A. Reassociation B. PS-Poll C. QoS Data D. QoS + CF-Poll E. QoS Null F. CTS Answer: C, E Question 3. Given: ITCertKeys.com has an IEEE 802.11 WLAN secured by strong authentication (PEAP-EAP-MSCHAPv2) and encryption (CCMP/AES). They wish to implement wVoIP phones but have notices that the phones they have selected only supports WPA-Personal using TKIP/RC4. How can ITCertKeys.com maintain their current level of data security while allowing the wVoIP phones network access? A. Enable application layer encryption for the voice protocol and implement a wireless intrusion prevention system (WIPS) on the wVoIP network segment B. Use a secure DHCP server that can restrict access to layer 3 addresses based on user authentication C. Use MAC filtering to the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used D. Use a separate SSID for the wVoIP phones and map this new SSID to a separate VLAN on the wired infrastructure E. Using RBAC, allow only the appropriate voice protocol (SIP, H.323 etc) to a specific destination address on the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used Answer: D, E Question 4: On an Enterprise IEEE 802.11 WLAN supporting both voice and data, why is WPA2-Personal security often preferred over WPA2-Enterprise Security for voice-enabled devices? A. WPA2-Personal imposes less encryption overhead than WPA2-Enterprise, resulting in better performance B. WPA2-Personal is more easily configured on the voice-enabled client devices than WPA2- Enterprise C. WPA2-Personal supports IEEE 802.11 fast/secure roaming between access points, whereas WPA2-Enterpise deployments may not D. Voice-enabled devices uses application layer (L7) security mechanism, minimizing the need for scalable data link (L2) security E. WPA2-Enterprise voice-enabled devices consume battery life at rate of almost double that of WAP2-Personal Answer: C Question 5. Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 802.1D user priority value: Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue? A. Voice B. Network Control C. Best Effort D. Controlled Load E. Video Answer: A, B Question 6. A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met? A. After a Block ACK Response B. After a scheduled service period ends C. The medium is idle at the AIFS[AC] slot boundary D. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT) E. The backoff time for that AC has expired Answer: C, E Question 7. Given: An EDCA QoS BSS is operating as a Robust Security Network (RSN). Two QoS STAs in the QoS BSS are using a Direct Link to communicate. When the RTS/CTS threshold is exceeded for a frame to be transmitted between the two QoS STAs, what is the frame exchange sequence, including interframe spaces? A. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK B. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-DIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK C. DIFS-RTS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK D. RIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK E. DIFS-RTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK Answer: A Question 8. All successful frame transmissions within an EDCA TXOP are separated by what IEEE 802.11 entity? A. TBTT B. ACK C. SIFS D. AIFS E. PIFS F. CAP Answer: C Question 9. Given: ITCertKeys.com has recently installed its first access point. The access point is an ERP unit and both ERP and HR-DSSS client stations will be used on the wireless network simultaneously. The network administrator has appropriately configured the access point and all of the company's HR-DSSS wireless client stations to use short preambles for CCK transmissions. A visitor begins using a Personal Data Assistant (PDA) with an integrated HR-DSSS radio configured for use of long preambles on ABC's wireless network Which statement describes what the network administrator will se with a wireless protocol analyzer? A. Once the visitor's PDA is associated to the access point, all HR-DSSS stations associated to the access point will being using long preambles B. The visitor's PDA will communicate with the access point using long preambles and the access point will communicate with all other client stations using short preambles C. The visitor's PDA will not be able to associate to the wireless network and it will cause significant interference for other wireless stations D. The visitor's PDA will associate to the access point using MMPDUs with long preambles but then begin sending Data frames using short preambles since data frames can't use long preambles Answer: A Question 10. Given: Shown are frames captured from an IEEE 80.1X/LEAP authentication. This WLAN is a Robust Security network (RSN) using the CCMP cipher suite. Exhibit: Using the information given in the screenshot, calculate how long it takes for only the frames that are part of the 4-Way handshake to complete. A. 210.443 ms B. 243.743 ms C. 3.018 ms D. 5.820 ms E. 237.753 ms Answer: D Question 11. An HR-DSSS STA does not receive an ACK for a first-attempt data frame that is transmitted. In this case, what happens to the STA's DCF contention window? A. The contention window is not affected by failed Data Frame Deliveries B. The contention window is immediately closed and the frame is retransmitted C. The contention window approximately doubles in size D. The slot time within the contention window decreases by 50% E. It varies because the backoff algorithm is random Answer: C Question 12. Which statement are true regarding frame acknowledgement in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN? A. A client station's Reassociation Request frames are only acknowledged with a Reassociation Response from the access point when roaming in a WLAN secured with IEEE 802.1X/EAP B. ACK frames following Data frames with the more fragments bit set to 1 set the NAV of competing stations for a duration value equal to two SIFS plus the next Data fragment and its ACK C. Probe Request acknowledgement (sending of a Probe Response frame) is configurable in the access point and is always linked to SSID broadcast configuration in Beacons D. Data Frame fragments are acknowledged individually ( with an ACK frame) E. In a EDCA BSS, encrypted Data frames are only acknowledged by client stations, never by access points Answer: B, D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.