Question 1.
You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. 

What is a possible concern in this situation?

A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times

Answer: A

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: D

Question 3.
Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. 

How many Storage Partitions are used in this configuration?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8

Answer: C

Question 4.
When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source logical drive. 

By default, what is its size?

A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?

A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity from use.

Answer: B

Question 6.
When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?

A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline

Answer: C

Question 7.
What best describes a drive in eplaced status?

A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed

Answer: B

Question 8.
When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]

How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?

A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
    Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
    Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]

Answer: B

Question 9.
What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?

A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.

Answer: B

Question 10.
In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?

A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address

Answer: A

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