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Question 1. What is a Location that contains inventory items, has a GL Account Code assigned to it, and provides a read-only list of inventory items at that Location? A. A Site B. A Storeroom C. A Courier Location D. A Holding Location Answer: B Question 2. A given discovery tool does not provide or maintain information on Sites. How can this information be provided for an IBM Tivoli Asset Management for IT V7.1 (TAMIT) implementation? A. Use the Task Filters application B. Use the Deployed Assets application C. Set the values using an expression in a mapping D. Run the TAMIT Site application to align the Deployed Assets to a Site Answer: C Question 3. A Rotating Item is being received and held in a holding Location. It is not serialized. What is the status of the receipt line item? A. WINSP B. WASSET C. WRECPT D. WRASSET Answer: B Question 4. Which application is used to establish standard naming conventions for computer software applications? A. Link Rules B. Comparison Rules C. Software Conversion D. Deployed Asset Conversion Answer: C Question 5. Which capabilities are facilitated by associating Commodities with a contract? A. Managing Commodity Codes B. Managing Commodity Groups C. Searching for Locations by Contract D. Searching for Commodities by Contract Answer: D Question 6. What must be specified before changing a contract's status to Approved (APPR)? A. At least one site authorized B. Contract start date and vendor terms C. Contract start and end dates and a vendor D. The contract associated to at least one vendor Answer: A Question 7. As part of Work Order functionality, which action is used to modify Asset, Location, and Configuration Item Specifications? A. On a Work Order, use the Move/Swap/Modify action B. On a Work Order, use the Specify/Modify Classification action C. On a Work Order result list, use the Move/Swap/Modify/ action D. On a Work Order result list, use the Specify/Modify Classification action Answer: A Question 8. Where can a comment be made that explains why an Authorized Asset does not link to a Deployed Asset? A. Asset Link Results B. Integration Framework C. Asset Reconciliation Results D. IBM Tivoli Integration Composer Answer: C Question 9. When creating an Item within the Item Master application, what are two mandatory fields? (Choose two.) A. Item B. Lot Type C. Order Unit D. Description E. Commodity Group Answer: A, B Question 10. Which field is required when creating a Person Group? A. User B. Group C. Person D. Person Group Answer: D
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Question 1. The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera. What is a possible problem? A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera B. PEA tile was never provided to the application C. Replication wasn't turned on D. Storage pool creation not completed Answer: B Question 2. What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 Answer: C Question 3. Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool. An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips: 1) Grant the profile access to the pool 2) Create application virtual pool 3) Start migrating pool mappings 4) Set the home pool for the access profile 5) Create pool mapping A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 Answer: A Question 4. What is an "unbundled" cluster? A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to deploy B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed Answer: D Question 5. What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting? A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary cluster B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the secondary Centera C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power rail Answer: A Question 6. How do you launch the CUA Monitor? A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000 C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227 D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu Answer: C Question 7. Click the exhibit button. Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Question 8. What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional? A. Chain and Inward Star B. Multipoint to Point and Chain C. Point to Multipoint and Link D. Ring and Star Answer: A Question 9. A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production. How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster? A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster Answer: C Question 10. With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work? A. NDMP compatible systems B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system Answer: D
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