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Question 11.
What can be used to integrate HP-UX 11iv2 system events into HP Systems Insight Manager?
A. IPMI
B. IPv6
C. LDAP
D. WBEM
Answer: D
Question 12.
Which recovery files are backed up in the flash recovery area in Oracle 10g or higher environments? (Select three.)
A. flashback logs
B. online redo logs
C. control file copies
D. current control file
E. archived redo logs
F. full and incremental backup sets
Answer: C, E, F
Question 13.
What must you be aware of when restoring and recovering an Oracle database on a UNIX server system?
A. Proxy copy must be enabled when performing a recovery only.
B. Concurrent restore data streams are limited to 1 when using tape drives.
C. User and group definitions must be the same as defined in the backup ownership.
D. Parallel restore streams must be set individually when using a proxy-copy ZDB session.
Answer: C
Question 14.
What is a feature of HP Data Protector Software when using an Oracle database integration?
A. Online backups are performed every hour by default.
B. It backs up the recovery catalog database by default.
C. It sets the Oracle database automatically in archive mode.
D. It backs up archive logs automatically on disk devices if available.
Answer: B
Question 15.
You are troubleshooting the Microsoft SQL interaction with HP Data Protector Software. The integration is configured correctly, but all database backups fail after a timeout with security error messages.
What is the most probable cause?
A. SqlAdmin service is using the default login password.
B. The SQL administrator is not the same as the HP Data Protector Software administrator.
C. SQL backup permissions are not configured for the HP Data Protector Software user account.
D. SQL Server and HP Data Protector Software Inet services are running under different
accounts.
Answer: D
Question 16.
What is the recommended block size for fast direct mode?
A. 58 kB
B. 64 kB
C. 68 kB
D. 132 kB
Answer: C
Question 17.
What must be done to the Oracle recovery catalog database before it can be backed up by HP Data Protector Software?
A. Disable and purge it.
B. Export it to a binary file.
C. Copy it to a temporary location.
D. Dismount it and put into backup mode.
Answer: B
Question 18.
A customer running Oracle Data Guard in a 24x7 environment is concerned about HP Data Protector Software error management and wants to get an e-mail when an error occurs.
Which error communication method is most suitable?
A. reporting
B. notification
C. event log trigger
D. HP Data Protector Software Oracle Monitor
Answer: B
Question 19.
After removing an Oracle integration in HP Data Protector Software, what must you do to ensure that the Oracle server software functions correctly?
A. Enable Oracle stand alone backup in the ora.ini file.
B. Uninstall Oracle and reinstall it using the secure install method.
C. Rebuild the Oracle binary to remove the link to the HP Data Protector Software Database
Library.
D. Reinstall the Oracle shell to disable the link to the HP Data Protector Software Cell Manager
console.
Answer: C
Question 20.
How can you verify access to the recovery catalog in an Oracle integration?
A. oradb_smb -catalog
B. recovery_log -sqlrc
C. oradblog_bar -recovery
D. rman catalog
Answer: D
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Question 1. What is a Location that contains inventory items, has a GL Account Code assigned to it, and provides a read-only list of inventory items at that Location? A. A Site B. A Storeroom C. A Courier Location D. A Holding Location Answer: B Question 2. A given discovery tool does not provide or maintain information on Sites. How can this information be provided for an IBM Tivoli Asset Management for IT V7.1 (TAMIT) implementation? A. Use the Task Filters application B. Use the Deployed Assets application C. Set the values using an expression in a mapping D. Run the TAMIT Site application to align the Deployed Assets to a Site Answer: C Question 3. A Rotating Item is being received and held in a holding Location. It is not serialized. What is the status of the receipt line item? A. WINSP B. WASSET C. WRECPT D. WRASSET Answer: B Question 4. Which application is used to establish standard naming conventions for computer software applications? A. Link Rules B. Comparison Rules C. Software Conversion D. Deployed Asset Conversion Answer: C Question 5. Which capabilities are facilitated by associating Commodities with a contract? A. Managing Commodity Codes B. Managing Commodity Groups C. Searching for Locations by Contract D. Searching for Commodities by Contract Answer: D Question 6. What must be specified before changing a contract's status to Approved (APPR)? A. At least one site authorized B. Contract start date and vendor terms C. Contract start and end dates and a vendor D. The contract associated to at least one vendor Answer: A Question 7. As part of Work Order functionality, which action is used to modify Asset, Location, and Configuration Item Specifications? A. On a Work Order, use the Move/Swap/Modify action B. On a Work Order, use the Specify/Modify Classification action C. On a Work Order result list, use the Move/Swap/Modify/ action D. On a Work Order result list, use the Specify/Modify Classification action Answer: A Question 8. Where can a comment be made that explains why an Authorized Asset does not link to a Deployed Asset? A. Asset Link Results B. Integration Framework C. Asset Reconciliation Results D. IBM Tivoli Integration Composer Answer: C Question 9. When creating an Item within the Item Master application, what are two mandatory fields? (Choose two.) A. Item B. Lot Type C. Order Unit D. Description E. Commodity Group Answer: A, B Question 10. Which field is required when creating a Person Group? A. User B. Group C. Person D. Person Group Answer: D
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