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Question 1.
In order to obtain attack information so that you can create a new attack object definition, you must follow certain steps. Given the following steps, assume you have acquired the attack source code.
a. On target machine, start capturing packets with a protocol analyzer.
b. On sensor, examine scio ccap output.
c. Compile attack code on attacker machine.
d. On sensor, run scio ccap all.
e. On attacker machine, run attack code against target.
What is the correct order for these steps?
A. e, c, d, b, a
B. c, d, a, e, b
C. c, e, b, d, a
D. c, d, e, a, b
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which three devices support clustering? (Choose three.)
A. IDP 10
B. IDP 50
C. IDP 200
D. IDP 600
E. IDP 1100
Answer: C, D, E
Question 3.
Which sensor utility is used to decode the contexts of a sequence of packets?
A. netstat
B. scio pcap
C. tcpreplay
D. scio ccap
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which sensor command will capture packets on a particular interface?
A. sctop
B. tcpdump
C. netstat
D. tcpreplay
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A virtual circuit is not a forwarding interface.
B. A virtual circuit is a communications path in and out of the sensor.
C. Virtual circuits on a sensor can be listed using the command sctop vc list.
D. In transparent mode, a virtual circuit maps one-to-one with a physical interface.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
What does the action "drop packet" instruct the sensor to do?
A. Drop all packets from the attacker's IP address.
B. Drop the specific session containing the attack pattern.
C. Drop only the specific packet matching the attack object.
D. Drop any packet matching this source IP, destination IP, and service.
Answer: C
Question 7.
On a sensor in transparent mode, how many virtual circuits are assigned to a virtual router?
A. 1
B. 1 or 2
C. 2
D. 3 or more
Answer: C
Question 8.
In IDP Sensor clustering, which port is used to send state synchronization information to other devices in the cluster?
A. eth0
B. eth1
C. eth2
D. console port
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will
be processed further.
B. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and
attack object will be processed further.
C. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will
be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
D. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and
attack object will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit, which SYN protector mode is the IDP using?
A. relay
B. passive
C. protective
D. handshake
Answer: B
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Question 1.
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: D
Question 2.
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
C. Problem alerts for operations personnel
D. User Tracking to track IP telephones
E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address.
D. No special configuration is needed.
Answer: C
Question 4.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Question 8.
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.
D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Cluster Setup page
B. Server Setup page
C. Publisher Activation page
D. Component Activation page
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent's CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record.
Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Premium
B. IP IVR
C. IPCC Express Standard
D. IPCC Express Enhanced
E. IPCC Enterprise
Answer: D
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