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Question 1.
What is the primary disadvantage in using VERIFIED WRITES on an Enscribe file?
A. An additional read is required for each write.
B. Additional CACHE is required for temporary storage.
C. TMF is disabled during the WRITE command.
D. READ access is slowed during block reads.
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is the risk of updating an audited file in a TMF environment when no TMF transaction is active?
A. The file may be marked as corrupt by the tile system.
B. None. There is no risk in this activity.
C. The record may cause a cache flush.
D. None. It is not possible to do this task.
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a runaway transaction under TMF?
A. any transaction that causes an excessive number of TMF transactions to abort within a
relatively short period of time
B. any TMF transaction which causes a bulk rollback of file updates across NonStop server
nodes
C. any transaction that, because of an application error, makes changes to a very large number
of records in a database
D. any TMF transaction which refuses to accept RESUMETRANSACTION requests from local
processes
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which technique is used to implement process pairs?
A. checkpoint
B. heartbeat
C. keepalive message
D. call to OSS API
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which SQL/MP cursor statement can only be used with dynamic SQL?
A. OPEN
B. DECLARE CURSOR
C. PREPARE
D. FETCH
Answer: C
Question 6.
When logging into osh from Guardian, all Guardian environment _______ are converted into OSS environment variables for the child process.
A. defines
B. assigns
C. params
D. startup messages
Answer: C
Question 7.
To avoid a full table scan in OLTP queries, enable
A. VSBB
B. ESP
C. MDAM
D. SBB
Answer: C
Question 8.
The Pathway/iTS product supports ________ requesters and web clients.
A. TACL
B. COBOL85
C. SCREEN COBOL
D. Java
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which fields are automatically supplied by EMS in an event message? Select THREE.
A. the value of the subsystem ID
B. the maximum version of fields in structures
C. the length of the final event message
D. the time at which the event was generated
E. the name of the relevant manager process
F. the value of the action ID token
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
The purpose of the CTOEDIT utility is to _______
A. convert unstructured files to structured files
B. convert C application code written on the PC to a Guardian edit file
C. convert OSS text files to Guardian text files
D. generate OSS code to be used in Guardian
Answer: C
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Question 1. A customer wants to purchase a second EML 245e library. What must be ordered in addition to the EML 103e base module? A. redundant power supply B. EML Command View License C. EML Secure Manager License D. EML capacity expansion module Answer: B Question 2. A customer needs a library with a minimum of 120 TB capacity and an expected compression ratio of 1:2. Which libraries most economically meet the customer's needs? (Select two.) A. EML 103e with LTO3 tape drives B. EML 245e with LTO2 tape drives C. EML 245e with LTO3 tape drives D. EML 442e with LTO2 tape drives E. EML 442e with LTO3 tape drives Answer: C, D Question 3. A customer needs a throughput of 5 TB/hr with an expected data compression ratio of 2:1. Which library best meets the customer's requirements? A. EML 103e with LTO3 tape devices B. EML 245e with LTO 2 tape devices C. EML 245e with LTO 3 tape devices D. EML 442e with LTO 3 tape devices Answer: D Question 4. When completing the installation process in an EML E-Series tape library, how can you verify that the Fibre Channel links are functioning correctly? A. Power cycle the tape library and check the OCP messages. B. Execute the fcping diagnostic utility from the management station. C. Issue the diaggetput command from the Command Line Interface. D. Disconnect and reconnect the cables and check the link indicators. Answer: D Question 5. A customer wants to use an EML E-Series library with partitioning in a Linux environment. Which backup software is suitable for this solution? A. Symantec NetBackup B. Symantec Backup Exec C. CA Brightstor ARCserve D. Syncsort Backup Express Answer: A Question 6. What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select three.) A. floor space B. room height C. power requirements D. lighting requirements E. grounding requirements F. distance to disk storage Answer: A, C, E Question 7. What do you check to verify the interface controller configuration in an EML E-Series tape library? (Select three.) A. host access B. LAN connection C. power redundancy D. robot arm movement E. Fibre Channel speed setting F. Fibre Channel connection type Answer: A, E, F Question 8. What is a consideration when using a UPS with an EML E-Series library? A. The UPS power must last long enough to finish active backup jobs. B. The load of the UPS should not exceed eighty percent of the UPS marked electrical current rating. C. The UPS must be connected to the Interface Manager serial connector to allow the UPS to shut down the EML if a power failure occurs. D. The UPS must be connected to the Interface Controller serial connector to allow the UPS to stop the tape drives if a power failure occurs. Answer: B Question 9. What are the minimum requirements to use the Command View TL graphical user interface (GUI)? A. interface controller and Command View TL B. management station and Command View TL C. interface controller, Command View TL, and GUI client with a supported Web browser D. management station, Command View TL, and GUI client with a supported Web browser Answer: D Question 10. A customer wants to use an EML103e tape library with Data Protector 5.1. The library firmware is 1070, the Interface Manager has firmware i180 and the e2400-FC 4G has firmware 5.7.1f loaded. The Command View TL version is 1.70. Using the Exhibits as a reference, what must be changed before the library can be used? A. No changes are needed. B. Data Protector must be upgraded to version 6. C. Command View TL needs an upgrade to version 1.80. D. Interface Manager needs firmware i171 and the Interface Controller needs 5.7.1b. Answer: C
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