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Braindumps for "E20-840" Exam

Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

 
Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com's environment is configured as follows:2 Symmetrix Arrays, each with 1000 Logical Volumes and 2000 Front End Mappings.2 ED-140M directors, fully populated with ports.100 Open Systems Hosts, all with dual paths.

This environment is managed with Control Center installed in a single host infrastructure configuration residing on a host that has dual 3 GHz processors, 2GB of RAM and 50 GB of available storage. 

If ITCertKeys.com wants to install the web console on the Control Center server, what would you tell them?

A. That this is not a valid configuration. To install the Web Console on the infrastructure, the  
     server needs to have more and faster processors.
B. That this is a valid configuration. The Web Console can reside on this host with the Control  
     Center infrastructure components.
C. That this is not a valid configuration. To install the Web Console on the infrastructure, the  
     server needs to have more RAM.
D. That this is not a valid configuration. To install the Web Console on this server, it needs to 
     have more available storage.

Answer: C

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com is planning to implement Control Center to manage their SAN, which consists of 4 DMX arrays, 2 M series switches and 40 hosts. As a result of a meeting to discuss the alert capability of Control Center, they express concerns about receiving alerts on temporary conditions. 

How would you respond to these concerns?

A. By turning off alerts about which ITCertKeys.com expresses concerns.
B. By explaining Control Center does not have the ability to handle alert spikes.
C. By explaining the before/after capability for alerts.
D. By suggesting a case be opened with support so a solution can be developed.

Answer: C

Question 3.
If ITCertKeys.com plans to deploy EMC Visual SRM in their environment, what dynamic will help them to determine which backend database (Oracle or SQL Server) to use?

A. The number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Files.
B. The number of Databases, Hosts, Storage Arrays and Switch Ports.
C. The number of Databases, Exchange Servers and Hosts.
D. The number of Databases, Exchange Servers, Hosts and Storage Arrays.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Some months ago, ITCertKeys.com installed Control Center as the main management tool.

What kind of Remote Management solution ought to be developed for them, so that the staff can solve Control Center problems during the night?

A. Install Control Center Web Server with the SSL option and have them connected and  
     authenticated through the Internet
B. Install a Citrix Server on a new Server and have them start a Console through a Citrix Client
C. Install Terminal Services on the Infrastructure Server and have them start a Console through 
     Terminal Services
D. Install a Citrix Server on the Infrastructure Server and have them start a Console through a 
     Citrix client

Answer: B

Question 5.
While considering the type and protection of the storage for the Control Center database, ITCertKeys.com is looking for a recommendation. 

Which option is recommended as best practice for database storage?

A. Use software based mirroring for the Control Center database
B. Due to the daily database exports unprotected disk is recommended
C. Use RAID-1 for the Control Center database
D. Use RAID-5 for the Control Center database

Answer: C

Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com is using Storage Scope as the reporting tool for multiple sites. They have a Management LAN in place, but they are unhappy because they have to login to Storage Scope every time they want to check a report. 

What can be done to negate this problem?

A. Configure Storage Scope properties so it allows bypassing login.
B. Customer can start a Control Center console without the login process and launch Storage 
    Scope from there.
C. Nothing, authentication is always required.
D. Nothing, there is always a login screen when Storage Scope is started from a browser.

Answer: A

Question 7.
You are tasked with the planning and design for Control Center Alerting in a ITCertKeys.com environment that consists of several CX500, CX600 and CX700 CLARiiON arrays. In addition to this, they also have 10 DMX2000s in their datacenter. 

Which of the following are valid statements with regards to implementing CLARiiON Performance Alerts into Control Center?

A. Performance Alerts are automatically sent to Control Center when the array is discovered
B. There are no CLARiiON Performance Alerts in Control Center
C. Setup SNMP Traps on the CLARiiON SP to send Performance Traps to the Storage Agent for 
    CLARiiON
D. Setup SNMP Traps on the CLARiiON SP to send Performance Traps to Control Center Server

Answer: B

Question 8.
You are planning a Control Center implementation for ITCertKeys.com and they indicate that they want to include 50 of their Oracle databases in Control Center Reports. They would like to receive reports on Table space utilization. 

With those numbers in mind, what needs to be considered?

A. You need to setup a DCP for each of those databases, after they are discovered.
B. Nothing at all, all databases are automatically discovered when the Agent is installed.
C. You need to setup Alerts for the table spaces in order to report utilization numbers.
D. You need to setup a DCP for all of those databases which is specified during the discovery 
     process.

Answer: A

Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com requires a Chargeback Report, which must be based on array devices allocated to each host. The cost of each device must be calculated based on array type, array model, as well as device size and device protection. The report must also display the cost per Host and Business Unit. 

What needs to be created if Control Center Storage Scope and Storage Scope FLR are deployed?

A. A custom layout of the Host Chargeback report in the Storage Scope Web Interface.
B. File Groups in Storage Scope FLR and use the Chargeback Summary Report.
C. A custom report with data from the Storage Scope API and customer supplied data.
D. A custom layout of the Array Device Allocation report in the Storage Scope Web Interface.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Of the following, which are the three broad Control Center Alerts categories? (Choose three)

A. Monitoring
B. Performance
C. Health
D. Free Space
E. Capacity

Answer: B, C, E



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Braindumps for "1D0-450" Exam

CIW Server Administrator

 Question 1.
Javier copies a file named "secret" from a folder named "restricted" to a folder named "open". Both folders reside on the same NTFS partition. What happens to the permissions on the file named "secret"?

A. The file inherits the target directory's permissions
B. The file loses its permissions and is assigned to the Everyone group
C. The retains the permissions it has before it was copied
D. The file is copied into the new directory and the old file is deleted, all permissions are retained.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
On a copy, permissions are inherited from the target folder. However, if it was a move, then the permissions move with the file, as long as it is on the same partition.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The new permissions are inherited from the target folder. It is not assigned to the everyone group unless that is what the target folder permissions were set at.
C: Permissions are retained on a MOVE, not a COPY.
D: This is really a move operation, not a copy.

Question 2.
Which of the following steps is necessary to add a new device driver to a Linux machine?

A. Copy the device driver to the device driver directory.
B. Extend the Linux kernel by incorporating the device code.
C. Insert the device into the Linux system and allow the system to choose the device files from its device directory.
D. Insert the cd-rom with the device driver into the machine Linux will detect it and prompt you through installation.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The process of adding the device driver is done by extending the Linux kernel.

Incorrect Answers:
A: There are directories on Linux for source and executables, but moving code to these directories does not automatically install the device driver.
C: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
D: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.

Question 3.
Nora is a site administrator for a large e-commerce site. She notices that the site is running slower and taking longer to process transactions. 

What should Nora first do to trouble shoot the problem?

A. Identify any bottlenecks in the current system by using the site diagnostic tools such as web trends.
B. Apply any necessary patches to the software running the site.
C. Monitor the CPU usage of the server running the site by using Windows NT performance monitor.
D. Test the site using different connection speeds to verify whether the connection is running more slowly.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The first thing to do is see what tasks are using the most CPU resources. In Windows NT, the Performance Monitor is the tool that will provide this monitoring.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The site diagnostic tools do not provide enough detail information for troubleshooting this problem. Since CPU processing performance needs to be monitored, a Operating System level tool ill b required.
B: Applying the patches may fix the problem, or make it worse. The first thing that should be done is to analyze the problem, and not just throw on fixes and other code HOPING that the problem may go away. Getting to know the problem helps to identify what is really wrong, and to apply the correct fix or course of action.
D: The observation that the site is running lower implied that the CPU had bottlenecks. Running at different communications speeds would only detect network bottlenecks, not CPU bottlenecks. There I no indication in this question that the network was being congested.

Question 4.
Ingrid is a Red Hat Linux system administrator. She is installing apache on her Linux server. 

Which command should Ingrid execute to determine whether apache is already installed?

A. ps aus|grep apache
B. lynx apache
C. rpm -q apache
D. rpm -i apache

Answer: C

Explanation: 
Red Hat Packet Manager (RPM) commands are used on Red Hat Linux. A query is issued to determine if apache is already there.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Running process status and a grep command (to search the active list) will not provide the information. If the apache server is running, then you caught it, but if the apache server is installed and not running, you will miss it.
B: There is no lynx command.
D: Although we need to run a RPM command, the -I form of the command does not provide the information we need.

Question 5.
Denise is the system administrator of a Linux system. She notices that whenever a specific process is running the performance of the system declines severely. 

What can Denise do to learn exactly how the process affects her system?

A. Use the top program to see if the program is CPU-intensive.
B. Use performance monitor to monitor the process.
C. Kill the process and observe the result.
D. Use pine to check the process.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The TOP program will provide an interactive screen with information similar to the ps command, and will display performance statistics.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Performance monitor is a Windows term, and is not used in Linux. Performance tools available in Linux are: ps, top, and vmstat.
C: Killing the process will lose the necessary information on how the process degraded the system and affected it. Denise needs to see the effect, ad this has to be done while the task is running and still doing its damage.
D: Pine is a mail program, and does not provide performance checking.

Question 6.
Nadir installed a Perl script in the cgi-bin directory of his Linux system that is running apache server. NO significant modifications have been made to Apache server. He accesses a script named test.cgi via a web browser, but the script does not execute, and Apache server returns a 500 "Internal Server Error" message. Nadir executes the command is-al on the cgi-bin directory of the problem server. He learns that the permissions on test.cgi are 700, and that the file is owned by root. 

Which command should Nadir enter to ensure that his Perl script will execute securely?

A. Chmod 711 test.cgi
B. Chmod test.cgi 100.
C. Chown apache test.cgi.
D. Chmod.test.cgi 711

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The format is chmod xxx filename. 711 Allows full access to the owner, and read access to all others.

Incorrect Answers:
B: This is the wrong syntax of the command, and 100 would restrict the owner to read only and everyone else is still locked out.
C: Change owner will not correct the situation, it is a permission issue.
D: This is the wrong syntax of the command, the permission number 711 comes before the filename.

Question 7.
Stephen has been assigned to install two apache web servers. He only has hardware for one server. So he decides to create a virtual server to host the second site that he will host. 

Which file should Stephen edit to set the virtual servers attributes?

A. Httpd.conf
B. Linux.conf.
C. Access.conf
D. Magic.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
Directives for the Apache Web server are stored in the httpd.conf file.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Linux.conf doesn't hold virtual server attributes.
C: Access.conf is used for access control, to control which directories people can access.
D: Virtual server attributes are not saved in a Magic file.

Question 8.
Which of the following services is an example of a Mail Transfer Agent (MTA)?

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Post Office Protocol version3 (POP3)
C. Microsoft Outlook.
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The Mail Transfer Agent is responsible for transmission of mail between servers. SMTP performs that function.

Incorrect Answers:
B: POP3 is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
C: Microsoft Outlook is a Mail User Agent (MUA), which can be customized to use either POP3 or IMAP to read mail from the mail server.
D: IMAP is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.

Question 9.
Jim is configuring his new mail server but he can't remember the well-known port for SMTP. 

What should Jim configure his mail server?

A. Jim should configure the server using port 80.
B. Jim should configure the server using port 25.
C. Jim should configure the server using port 23.
D. Jim should configure the server using port 24.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The well known port for SMTP is 25.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 80 is the well known port for HTTP
C: Port 23 is the well known port for Telnet.
D: Port 24 is not assigned as a well known port.

Question 10.
Frank is a system administrator for a large network. His company has a large DNS structure that he does not want to reveal to outsiders. He alters the SMTP headers of all messages so that his users appear to be sending mails from a different address. 

What is the name of process that Frank implemented?

A. Aliasing.
B. Masquerading.
C. Forwarding.
D. Relaying.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
Masquerading is the proper technical term for the process of changing SMPT headers to make the origins of the messages appear as if they came from a different source.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Aliasing allows the use of nicknames, the address itself is not hidden in this process, so Frank would not be able to hide anything but user information.
C: Forwarding will forward the messages, but the headers are preserved and Frank has not hidden anything.
D: Relaying is when an intermediate mail server, or hub, is used to pass mail from server to server. Headers are preserved, so nothing is hidden and the original IP addresses and domain names are exposed.


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