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Braindumps for "000-134" Exam

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Braindumps for "350-040" Exam

CCIE Storage Networking

 Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. 

What is the operational state of VSAN 9?

A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down

Answer: E

Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. 

User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?

A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Answer: C

Question 3.
What statement is true?

A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?

A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.

Answer: A

Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?

A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP

Answer: E

Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:

A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected

Answer: A

Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:

A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses  in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP Addresses in the same subnet

Answer: B, D

Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?

A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.

Answer: D

Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?

A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?

A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems

Answer: B, C



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