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Question 1.
What do the entries in the /proc directory represent?
A. They are decimal numbers corresponding to process-ID numbers.
B. They are decimal numbers corresponding absolute sector numbers on a disk.
C. They are decimal numbers corresponding to the inode number of activate processes.
D. They are decimal numbers corresponding to a time stamp that identified the process
messages on the message logs.
Answer: A
Question 2.
At what layer does the client/server model function?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Internet
D. Network
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which command lists the registered RPC services?
A. ipcs
B. lsrpc
C. rpcall
D. psrinfo
E. rpcinfo
F. rpclist
Answer: E
Question 4.
Which server file is read to obtain the clients host name during the RARP phase of the JumpStart boot sequence?
A. rules
B. hosts
C. dfstab
D. ethers
E. sysidcfg
F. bootparams
Answer: D
Question 5.
Given the following information taken from the syslogd configuration file:
mail.debug ifdef{‘LOGHOST’ ,/var/adm/authlog, @loghost}
What is indicated of the mail messages are logged to /var/adm/authlog?
A. The loghost entry is not in the /etc/hosts file.
B. The loghost in unreachable over the network.
C. The local (current) host has an /etc/hosts alias of loghost.
D. The loghost variable is evaluated false by the m4 macro processor.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which of the following will use RARP?
A. Dataless client and jumpstart client
B. Diskless client and jumpstart client
C. Diskless client and dataless client
D. Standalone machine
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which is the syslogd configuration file?
A. /etc/syslog.conf
B. /etc/syslogd.conf
C. /usr/lib/syslog/syslog.conf
D. /usr/include/sys/syslogd.conf
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which logical pathname should be used to identify a virtual volume (d0) under Solstice DiskSuite control?
A. /dev/md/dsk/d0
B. /dev/sds/dsk/d0
C. /dev/lvm/dsk/d0
D. /dev/md/dsk/c1t1d0s1
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which two are valid direct map entries that trigger the mounting of an NFS filesystem by the automounter? (Choose two)
A. /docs/ /export/share/docs
B. /patch mars:/export/path
C. guest mars:/export/home/guest
D. /services /export/share/services
E. student mars:/export/home/student
F. /export/games saturn:/export/share/games
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
Which of the following is the DNS daemon?
A. kerb.d
B. dns.d
C. in.named
D. in.dnsd
Answer: C
Question 11.
What are two characteristics of the Solstice DiskSuite software? (Choose two)
A. It manages disk space by using sub disks.
B. It divides the physical disk into public and private areas.
C. It is able to assemble large volumes from multiple physical disks.
D. It uses standard disk slices that have been created using the format utility.
Answer: A, D
Question 12.
If the automounter is used, which client file no longer needs to be updated to allow the automatic mounting of NFS resources upon reboot of the client?
A. /etc/vfstab
B. /etc/default/fs
C. /etc/dfs/dfstab
D. /etc/dfs/fstypes
E. /etc/dfs/sharetab
Answer: A
Question 13.
Which statement about an Ethernet address is true?
A. It is unique for every system.
B. It had an entry in the /etc/inet/hosts file.
C. It is a 32-bit address divided into four 8-bit fields.
D. It is a number assigned by the system administrator.
Answer: A
Question 14.
When placing a machine on a subnet, which of these is optional?
A. Create a new hostname.xxx for the new interface
B. Create new entries in /etc/inet/hosts
C. Modifying /etc/inet/netmasks
D. Rebooting the machine
Answer: A
Question 15.
Which two methods can be used to stop the spray service? (Choose two)
A. Execute the ‘rpcinfo ‘d sprayd 1’ command.
B. Execute the ‘/etc/init.d/sprayd stop’ command.
C. Edit the /etc/inetd.conf file to comment out the line for spray, and then execute the ‘pkill –HUP
inetd’ command.
D. Execute ‘ps –ef|grep spray’ to acquire a PID for the command and execute kill –9 PID to kill
the spray command.
Answer: D, C
Question 16.
In an NIS+ namespace, what directory names are reserved? (Choose two)
A. org_dir
B. root_dir
C. table_dir
D. groups_dir
Answer: A, D
Question 17.
Which three can function as naming services for the Solaris 8 Operating Environment? (Choose three)
A. NIS+
B. DNS
C. NFS
D. UFS
E. UNS
F. LDAP
Answer: A, B, F
Question 18.
Which protocol maps Ethernet addresses to know IP addresses?
A. ARP
B. DNS
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: A
Question 19.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. The NFS resource is mounted so that if the server is unavailable, and the client reboots, the boot process will complete successfully.
Which two can be added to the client’s 7etc/vfstab file to achieve this? (Choose two)
A. fg
B. ro
C. bg
D. intr
E. soft
F. hard
Answer: A, C
Question 20.
Which of these will let you test your uucp settings?
A. uustat
B. uucheck
C. untry
D. uuxqt
Answer: B
Question 21.
With regard to the JumpStart services available with the Solaris Operating Environment, which server provided information that a JumpStart client uses to partition disks and create filesystems, and to add or remove Solaris packages?
A. The web server
B. The boot server
C. The install server
D. The configuration server
Answer: D
Question 22.
During the first build of a new NIS map, the slave servers do not know of its existence, so the push process attempt fails. What can you do to recover from this problem?
A. You transfer the source files from the NIS master to the NIS slave and execute a make on the
NIS slave.
B. You interrupt the build process with a Control-c, and push all of the maps from the master
server at once using the ypinit –s command.
C. You put the build process into background processing mode, add an empty map to the slave
server and foreground the build process to continue the build.
D. You interrupt the build process with a Control-c when the push process hangs, and execute
the ypxfr command on the map from the slave server(s) to complete the build process.
Answer: D
Question 23.
Which name should be given to a direct automount map when it is created?
A. It can be called anything
B. It can only be called auto.direct
C. It can only be called auto_direct
D. It can only be called auto_master
E. It can be called anything as long as it is preceded by auto_
Answer: A
Question 24.
An NFS client is a system that _____.
A. Contains the file resources to be shared with other systems on the network.
B. Provides access to local file systems for access by other systems on the same subnet.
C. Has access to files or applications on any host in the network with a single user identification
and password.
D. Mounts the file resources that are shared over the network and presents the file resources as if
they were local.
Answer: D
Question 25.
What is a server that contains jumpstart information called?
A. Jumpstart server
B. Dataless client
C. Diskless client
D. Installation server
Answer: D
Question 26.
What tasks must be done on the NIS master to add support for a new JumpStart client? (Choose three)
A. Re-make NIS maps with the updated client information.
B. Edit the hosts file, add the new client name and IP address.
C. Edit the ethers file, add the new client name and Ethernet address.
D. Edit the bootparams file, add the client name and architecture type.
E. Edit the rules file, add the client name and software configuration cluster information.
F. Edit the class file, add the clients name and location of configuration and installation servers.
Answer: A, B, F
Question 27.
You want to enable the logging of every failed login attempt. To do this you must change the syslogd configuration file from its installation defaults. Which facility should you change?
A. auth
B. kern
C. user
D. notice
E. emerg
F. daemon
Answer: A
Question 28.
Which command is used to install the information from the Solaris 8 software 2 of 2 CD-ROM to an existing JumpStart image?
A. add_install_client
B. add_install_server
C. setup_install_server
D. add_to_install_server
E. modify_install_server
Answer: D
Question 29.
Which two must you complete when configuring an NIS slave server? (Choose two)
A. You execute the domainname command to set the local NIS domain.
B. You edit the /etc/hosts file to include the NIS master server and NIS slave servers.
C. You edit the slave server copies of the /etc/ethers file to identify MAC addresses of the NIS
clients.
D. You execute the ypbind command on the slave server to pull the NIS maps from the master
server to the slave server.
Answer: B, D
Question 30.
You have written a start script to launch application XXX when the system starts. You decide to add a command to the script. If the application does now launch, it logs a message with syslogd with the appropriate severity. Which command accomplished this?
A. logger XXX failed to start
B. syslog –s 7 XXX failed to start
C. log –f user –s err XXX failed to start
D. logger –F user s err XXX failed to start
E. echo XXX failed to start, severity=7>>/var/adm/messages
Answer: C
Question 31.
What path names represent block devices? (Choose three)
A. /dev/md/dsk/d0
B. /dev/md/rdsk/d0
C. /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s5
D. /dev/rdsk/ c0t1d0s5
E. /dev/vx/dsk/apps/logvol
F. /dev/vx/rdsk/apps/logvol
Answer: A, C, E
Question 32.
Where is the variable CONSOLE used?
A. /etc/login
B. ~/.login
C. /etc/default/passwd
D. /etc/default/login
Answer: D
Question 33.
In the execution attributes database, what is NOT a valid value fir the attr? (Which is the last field)
A. euid
B. uid
C. egid
D. suid
Answer: D
Question 34.
What does Sun Management Console do? (Choose two)
A. It provides a means of connecting to a remote system at the ok prompt.
B. It provides a GUI through which local and remote systems can be administered.
C. It provides a means of managing remote systems without having to do a remote login.
D. It provides a common terminal window to type commands, which subsequently run on a
number of Solaris 8 systems at the same time.
Answer: B, C
Question 35.
What does keylogin –r do?
A. Creates .rootkey.
B. Lets you login remotely.
C. Removes the key.
D. Refreshes the keys in the keyserver.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?
A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route
Answer: C
Question 2.
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV
Answer: B
Question 3.
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)
A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly
between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between
endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around
supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly
between endpoints.
Answer: E, F
Question 4.
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)
A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B.
What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?
A. Translate all called numbers within Site A to four digits.
B. Translate all called numbers within Site B to three digits.
C. Translate all called numbers at either site to ten digits.
D. Translate all called numbers leaving Site A to ten digits.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)
A. call waiting
B. on hook
C. ring
D. busy
E. off hook
Answer: B, C, E
Question 7.
Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?
A. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
B. connection trunk 408555....
C. connection-trunk 404555.... answer-mode
D. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
E. voice-port 1/0:1
Answer: C
Question 8.
What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?
A. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the technology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
C. sends both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining destination
number
Answer: C
Question 9.
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination
from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection
request to the source
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential
gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
E. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has
relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set
up the call path
Answer: E
Question 10.
What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?
A. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
B. IP phones
C. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)
D. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks
Answer: D
Question 11.
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
A. Define COR labels.
B. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
C. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure SRST.
F. Configure COR lists.
Answer: A, C, D, F
Question 12.
A telemarketing firm needs to use number translation for incoming and outgoing calls. They have defined two translation profiles, one for incoming and one for outgoing calls.
What can be used to simplify this task?
A. dial peer
B. source IP group
C. trunk group
D. voice port
E. hunt group
Answer: C
Question 13.
The SJ local zone contains a gatekeeper that controls two gateways, SJ1 and SJ2. Both gateways provide access to area code 408.
Which two command strings should be entered into the gatekeeper to give the SJ2 gateway priority over the SJ1 gateway? (Choose two.)
A. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 0 SJ2, 10 SJ1
B. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ1
C. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1
D. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ2
E. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 6 SJ1, 10 SJ2
F. zone prefix SJ 408 gw-priority 10 SJ2
Answer: C, F
Question 14.
What is the most common E&M type used outside North America?
A. Type III
B. Type I
C. Type II
D. Type V
E. Type IV
Answer: D
Question 15.
Which statement is true about MGCP?
A. Call completion is always shared, with some intelligence on the endpoint, some on the call
agent.
B. Endpoints may act alone or cooperate with call agent to complete calls.
C. Endpoints always take all actions to complete calls.
D. Call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the endpoints.
Answer: D
Question 16.
Which dial-peer command can set the parameters that search through a series of dial peers for a destination that is not in use?
A. distribute
B. request
C. circulate
D. rotary
E. hunt
F. query
Answer: E
Question 17.
What is the E.164 standard?
A. national numbering plan
B. dial plan
C. private numbering plan
D. international public telecommunications numbering plan
Answer: D
Question 18.
Which option is true concerning the MGCP call agent?
A. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
B. acts only as a recorder of call details
C. provides only call signaling and call setup
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup
Answer: C
Question 19.
Which best defines an ACD?
A. a telephone system that switches calls between users on local lines
B. a telephone system that responds to a caller with a voice menu and helps to appropriately
connect the call
C. a telephone system that is connected to the exchange to provide conventional voice services
to several subscribers
D. a local company that provides phone capability and distribution from the phone company's
central office
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they
support voice or video.
D. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
E. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
Answer: A, E
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Question 1.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris, Minsk, and Athens. The CIO of ITCertKeys.com has sent a manager named Andy Reid to work in the office of Paris. Andy Reid has taken with him the Windows XP Professional Full PaITKaged Product (FPP). Accompanying the FPP is a Microsoft Select License for the installation of Windows XP Professional.
At Paris Andy Reid wants install Windows XP Professional on a laptop. Andy Reid uses the installation media in the Product Fulfillment kit with the Microsoft Select License for the installation. Andy Reid then contacts you to state his problem "a screen requires the input of a product license key". Andy Reid wants to know which product key he should use.
What should you tell him?
A. The FPP product key
B. The VLK product key
C. A product key that is acquired by the security Web site.
D. Use the product key printed on a stiITKer at the bottom of the laptop.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you want to license Windows XP Professional, you should use the Volume Product License Key (VLK).
Incorrect answer:
A: The FPP is used to install media which is provided in an FPP.
C: If you make use of the security website, you or Andy Reid will violate the Microsoft License agreement.
D: The Windows XP Professional product key which is on the laptop is intended only for the installation of Windows XP Professional on the system to which the stiITKer is attached.
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Rory Allen complains that he is unable to join the ITCertKeys.com domain with his Windows XP computer. You tell Rory Allen to ping a domain controller in ITCertKeys.com, which was successful.
What should you tell him to do next?
A. Rory Allen should verify the domain mode.
B. Rory Allen should verify the operating system version.
C. Rory Allen should verify the hardware compatibility.
D. Rory Allen should verify the network connectivity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional can join a Windows Server 2003 domain, not the Windows XP Home Edition. This is the difference if the two operating systems.
Incorrect answer:
A: It is not needed to make sure of the domain mode because Windows XP Professional cam interoperate with Windows Server 2003.
C, D: The hardware compatibility or the network connectivity his not the problem. It states in the scenario that Rory Allen did ping the domain which was successful.
Question 3.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Mia Hamm works in the Sales department. Due to volume of work, Mia Hamm needs her computer every minute. One morning Mia Hamm came to you and said that she needs the latest versions of the security patches from Microsoft. Mia Hamm wants the update to be installed without intervention from her.
What should you tell Mia Hamm to do?
A. Use Software Update Services (SUS).
B. Use the Windows Update.
C. Use Automatic Updates.
D. Use Windows Unattended Installation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mia Hamm should use the Automatic Updates. She can schedule the update to run after hours.
Incorrect answer:
A: SUS uses a local Windows Update Server. The question doesn't say ITCertKeys.com has a SUS server.
B: If Mia Hamm is going to use Windows Updates, she has to manually download and install the updates.
D: The Unattended Installation will allow her to install Windows XP Professional without doing anything. It is not used to download and install updates every day.
Question 4.
You work as the administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,300 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Accounting. Due to the growth of the Sales department, ITCertKeys.com will hire another 100 employees over the next month.
The CIO acquires 100 new Windows XP Professional computers which will be added to the ITCertKeys.com network. Amy Walsh is a new employee in the Sales department. You install Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS271 for Amy Walsh. You need to ensure that Amy Walsh can use her ITCertKeys -WS271 for at least three years. You also want to send Microsoft information about ITCertKeys.com.
What should you do?
A. Register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271.
B. Activate and register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271 during the installation
process.
C. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press F8 during the boot process.
D. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press DEL or F2 during the boot process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you register the computer, Microsoft will have information about the company and if you activate the operating system, it will continue after 30 days.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Registering will not allow the computer to stop with Windows XP Professional. You need to activate the operating system.
C: If you press F8 when the operating system is rebooting, it will display the Boot Menu with options such as Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Network support etc.
D: If you press the DEL of F2 key, it will display the CMOS setup program.
Question 5.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department and a Marketing department. The Marketing department is in Chicago and the Sales department is in Dallas. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Amy Wilson works in the Sales department. She wants to install Windows XP Professional on a system in the Dallas office without the risk of infection of a worm or virus before the completion of the installation. Amy Wilson also wants File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks to be disabled.
What should Amy Wilson do?
A. In the Setup Wizard, use the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
B. In the Setup Wizard, use the Typical settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
C. In the Setup program, use the Advance Options on the Install Options page.
D. Disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box, Amy Wilson can disable the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks. This setting is usually enabled by default.
Incorrect answer:
B: If she uses the Typical setting, the option will be enabled.
C: You only use the Advance Options on the Install Options page to identify the location of the setup files; select disk partitions; etc.
D: There is no need to disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable, the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks will be installed by default.
Question 6.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth tries to install is Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS277. ITCertKeys -WS277 is currently running Microsoft Windows 98. When Andy Booth inserts the Windows XP Professional CD into the CD-ROM drive and reboots ITCertKeys -WS277, Windows 98 loads instead of the Windows XP Professional setup program. Andy Booth wants to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS277 will load the Windows XP Professional setup program.
What should Andy Booth do?
A. Create a MS-DOS with the Add or Remove Programs, boot the computer with the disk and
change to the CD-ROM drive and run winnt32.exe.
B. Remove the drive with the Windows 98 files in the System utility.
C. Create the installation disks with WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe, and boot from the disk.
D. Enter the BIOS setup program and change the boot order for the CD-ROM drive to be cheITKed
first.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Andy Booth should change the starting order so that the computer cheITKs the CD-ROM first. When a computer starts, it will cheITK for the startup files on the hard drive. By changing it to cheITK the CD-ROM first, it will then find the Windows XP's startup files.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If he creates a MS-DOS disk, he should use the winnt.exe and not the winnt32.exe.
B: You cannot configure the boot order with the System utility.
C: WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe is used to install the correct drivers for a Windows XP installation. It is not used to create an installation disk.
Question 7.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 50 employees over the next 3 months. The new employees will be assigned to the Sales department. The company has purchased 50 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees.
You are required to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers. All the hardware on the new client computers appears on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). You install Windows XP Professional on one of the new client computers named ITCertKeys -WS102. However, once the installation is complete ITCertKeys -WS102 fails to start and you receive a "STOP INACCESSIBLE BOOT DEVICE" error message. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS102 can start properly.
What should you do?
A. In the system BIOS, disable UDMA for the primary hard disk.
B. Use the Recovery Console and run the Fixboot and Fixmbr commands.
C. In the system BIOS, disable all PIO modes for the primary hard disk.
D. In the system BIOS, disable the virus scanning software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FIXBOOT is used to write a new boot sector onto the computer's system partition and FIXMBR is used to repair the MBR of the computer's boot partition.
Incorrect answer:
A, C: UDMA and PIO are automatically set at boot time. This will have no effect on the booting of the system.
D: To disable the virus scanning option will not interfere during the installation. It will have no effect on the booting of the system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 657
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9
Question 8.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Research, Marketing, and Accounting. Amy Walsh is the manager of the Research department. She currently uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS129. ITCertKeys.com purchases a new computer named ITCertKeys -WS200 for Amy Walsh. ITCertKeys -WS200 has two hard drives that are connected to an ISA SCSI adapter and an IDE CD-ROM drive.
You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS200. You decide to install Windows XP Professional from the Windows XP Professional installation CD. You configure ITCertKeys -WS200 to boot from the CD-ROM and attempt to install Windows XP Professional. However, the installation fails and you receive an error message stating that Setup cannot locate any hard disks on ITCertKeys -WS200. You need to ensure that you can install Windows XP Professional successfully on ITCertKeys -WS200.
What should you do?
A. During the installation, provide the SCSI adapter driver when prompted.
B. In the system BIOS, assign an IRQ for a PCI video adapter.
C. Replace the multi syntax with scsi syntax in the Boot.ini file.
D. Ensure that the SCSI bus is properly terminated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional installation does not recognize the SCSI adapter. You should restart Setup and press F6 when prompted. You then should press S and provide the SCSI adapter driver on a floppy disk.
Incorrect answer:
B: Windows Plug and Play would assign the video card an available IRQ.
C: According to the scenario the set up has failed immediately. TheBoot.ini is created when it is close to the first reboot.
D: This could potentially be a cause of the problem; however, it is far more likely to be a driver issue. If the bus wasn't properly terminated, you would get an error during the POST process before the installation starts.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 106
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 4
Question 9.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com includes a Finance department. ITCertKeys.com has just acquired a new computer for an employee named Andy Reid. You set the BIOS for the following boot sequence: CD-ROM, Floppy disk drive and Hard disk. You then boot the computer from the Windows XP Professional installation CD-ROM. When you reboot he computer after the Windows XP installation, you insert a CD-ROM and install TechNet with the Minimum setup option. There after you insert a floppy disk and install the latest video driver.
When the computer again reboots it displays the following error message:
Non-system disk or disk error. Replace and press any key to continue. You need to start the computer with the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Remove the floppy disk and press SPACEBAR.
B. Start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver.
C. Remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR.
D. Set the CD-ROM as the last device in the boot order.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should remove a floppy disk and then press the SPACEBAR. If it is not a bootable disk then the computer will show an error message.
Incorrect answer:
B: It is not needed to start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver. With a floppy disk in a floppy disk drive, you will not be able to restart in Safe Mode.
C: It is not needed to remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR. Th4e drive will determine that the CD-ROM is not bootable.
D: There is no need to change the boot sequence because the CD-ROM is not bootable.
Question 10.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com is in the process of upgrading the client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to use cloning to deploy Windows XP Professional to the client computers in the Marketing Department. You install a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS240 in your test lab and install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS240. You then install the required applications on ITCertKeys -WS240 and configure the computer. After ensuring that ITCertKeys -WS240 performs as expected, you log onto the computer as the local Administrator. However, when you attempt to run sysprep.exe at the command prompt, sysprep.exe does not execute.
What is the most probable cause of this problem?
A. The disk drive on ITCertKeys -WS240 has multiple partitions. Sysprep can only clone a single
partition.
B. The sysprep files are not in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
C. To run the sysprep utility, you must be a member of the Domain Admins group.
D. The partitions on ITCertKeys -WS240 are formatted with FAT32.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For Sysprep.exe to run you need the following files Sysprep.exe, Setupcl.exe and Sysprep.inf on a floppy disk or in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
Incorrect answer:
A: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
C: Not only the Domain Admins group has that privilege, but the administrator account has also sufficient privileges to run Sysprep.exe.
D: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 62
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
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