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Question 1.
Given:
1. public class ConstOver {
2. public ConstOver (int x, int y, int z) {
3. }
4. }
Which two overload the ConstOver constructor? (Choose Two)
A. ConstOver ( ) { }
B. Protected int ConstOver ( ) { }
C. Private ConstOver (int z, int y, byte x) { }
D. Public Object ConstOver (int x, int y, int z) { }
E. Public void ConstOver (byte x, byte y, byte z) { }
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Given:
1. public class MethodOver {
2. public void setVar (int a, int b, float c) {
3. }
4. }
Which two overload the setVar method? (Choose Two)
A. Private void setVar (int a, float c, int b) { }
B. Protected void setVar (int a, int b, float c) { }
C. Public int setVar (int a, float c, int b) (return a;)
D. Public int setVar (int a, int b, float c) (return a;)
E. Protected float setVar (int a, int b, float c) (return c;)
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Given:
1. class BaseClass {
2. Private float x = 1.0f ;
3. protected float getVar ( ) ( return x;)
4. }
5. class Subclass extends BaseClass (
6. private float x = 2.0f;
7. //insert code here
8. )
Which two are valid examples of method overriding? (Choose Two)
A. Float getVar ( ) { return x;}
B. Public float getVar ( ) { return x;}
C. Float double getVar ( ) { return x;}
D. Public float getVar ( ) { return x;}
E. Public float getVar (float f ) { return f;}
Answer: B, D
Question 4.
Which two demonstrate an “is a” relationship? (Choose Two)
A. public interface Person { } public class Employee extends Person { }
B. public interface Shape { } public class Employee extends Shape { }
C. public interface Color { } public class Employee extends Color { }
D. public class Species { } public class Animal (private Species species;)
E. interface Component { } Class Container implements Component (Private Component[ ]
children;)
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
Which statement is true?
A. An anonymous inner class may be declared as final.
B. An anonymous inner class can be declared as private.
C. An anonymous inner class can implement multiple interfaces.
D. An anonymous inner class can access final variables in any enclosing scope.
E. Construction of an instance of a static inner class requires an instance of the enclosing outer
class.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Given:
1. package foo;
2.
3. public class Outer (
4. public static class Inner (
5. )
6. )
Which statement is true?
A. An instance of the Inner class can be constructed with “new Outer.Inner ()”
B. An instance of the inner class cannot be constructed outside of package foo.
C. An instance of the inner class can only be constructed from within the outer class.
D. From within the package bar, an instance of the inner class can be constructed with “new
inner()”
Answer: A
Question 7.
Exhibit:
1. public class enclosingone (
2. public class insideone{}
3. )
4. public class inertest(
5. public static void main (string[]args)(
6. enclosingone eo= new enclosingone ();
7. //insert code here
8. )
9. )
Which statement at line 7 constructs an instance of the inner class?
A. InsideOnew ei= eo.new InsideOn();
B. Eo.InsideOne ei = eo.new InsideOne();
C. InsideOne ei = EnclosingOne.new InsideOne();
D. EnclosingOne.InsideOne ei = eo.new InsideOne();
Answer: D
Question 8.
Exhibit:
1. interface foo {
2. int k = 0;
3. ]
4.
5. public class test implements Foo (
6. public static void main(String args[]) (
7. int i;
8. Test test = new test ();
9. i= test.k;
10.i= Test.k;
11.i= Foo.k;
12.)
13.)
14.
What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. An error at line 2 causes compilation to fail.
C. An error at line 9 causes compilation to fail.
D. An error at line 10 causes compilation to fail.
E. An error at line 11 causes compilation to fail.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Given:
1. //point X
2. public class foo (
3. public static void main (String[]args) throws Exception {
4. printWriter out = new PrintWriter (new
5. java.io.outputStreamWriter (System.out), true;
6. out.printIn(“Hello”);
7. }
8. )
Which statement at PointX on line 1 allows this code to compile and run?
A. Import java.io.PrintWriter;
B. Include java.io.PrintWriter;
C. Import java.io.OutputStreamWriter;
D. Include java.io.OutputStreamWriter;
E. No statement is needed.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Given:
1. public class test (
2. public static void main (String args[]) {
3. int i = 0xFFFFFFF1;
4. int j = ~i;
5.
6. }
7. )
What is the decimal value of j at line 5?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 14
D. –15
E. An error at line 3 causes compilation to fail.
F. An error at line 4 causes compilation to fail.
Answer: C
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Please send dump to namowelgnis@yahoo.ca - Urgent!
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thanks
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Question 1.
In which service component of the prepare phase would you identify factors such as solution goals, business drivers, and success criteria?
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Technology Strategy Development
C. Proof of Concept
D. Business Requirements Development
Answer: B
Question 2.
In which service component in the design phase would you provide a site-specific system implementation plan which defines the activities, configurations, and commissioning test plans required to implement routing and switching solution components and software?
A. Detailed Design Development
B. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
C. Project Kick-off
D. Implementation Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which two service components are performed during the implement phase? (Choose two.)
A. Phased Implementation
B. Configuration Management
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Staging
E. Security Readiness Assessment
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the technology strategy development service component?
A. Analyze the customer's business requirements and recommend the appropriate technologies
to meet those business requirements.
B. Address the customer's physical site requirements.
C. Identify the customer's business requirements for the proposed solution.
D. Determine the appropriate end user training needed for the technology solution.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which service component in the implement phase includes activities such as verifying that the customer understands the operational processes and its post-sales support responsibilities?
A. Post-Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
B. Project Planning
C. Develop escalation process
D. Update leading practices
Answer: A
Question 6.
Utilizing a trouble ticketing system to track problems is a part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. Operations Setup
B. Change Management
C. Problem Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is the primary objective of performing a network readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. align business requirements to technical requirements
B. assess the current network infrastructure's ability to adequately support the new solution and
identify new requirements
C. create a plan to recycle used equipment
D. install and test system components in a non-production environment
Answer: B
Question 8.
In which service component of the prepare phase would you provide a technology-focused, business-focused, or technology- and business-focused demonstration of the technology solution to highlight the features and benefits?
A. Technology Strategy Development
B. Deliver Proposal
C. Proof of Concept
D. High-Level Design Development
E. Customer Education
Answer: E
Question 9.
In which service component would you notify all project participants of their specific responsibilities during the planning phase of the project?
A. Proposal Delivery
B. Account Planning
C. Planning Project Kickoff
D. Site Readiness Assessment
Answer: C
Question 10.
Define procedures to manage access to all systems is an activity that is part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. Security Administration
B. Service Review
C. Problem Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which service component would you typically perform prior to the handover to the customer's operations organization and involves running tests to ensure that the solution is ready for production?
A. Security Check
B. Project Close Out
C. Systems Integration
D. Skill Assessment
E. Acceptance Testing
Answer: E
Question 12.
In which service component of the design phase would you provide a comprehensive, implementation-ready design for the customer's solution?
A. High Level Design
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Implementation Plan
D. Staging Plan
Answer: B
Question 13.
In which service component of the prepare phase would you provide a financial justification for the customer to adopt of a technology?
A. Technology Strategy Development
B. Business Case Development
C. High-Level Design Development
D. Proof of Concept
Answer: B
Question 14.
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the configuration management service component?
A. Standardize methods and procedures for authorizing, documenting, and performing changes
to a routing and switching system.
B. Identify and solve recurring incidents by analyzing incident trends to identify patterns and
systemic conditions.
C. Checks whether changes in the infrastructure have been recorded correctly and monitors the
status of the components to help ensure an accurate picture of the network.
D. Monitor, manage, and report on service-level metrics and abnormal events or trends that may
adversely affect the availability, capacity, performance, or security of the enterprise routing
and switching system.
Answer: C
Question 15.
Which service component in the design phase occurs after detailed design validation?
A. Detailed Design Development: Operations Design
B. Detailed Design Development: Physical Design Workshop
C. Package and Price Design
D. Detailed Design Customer Signoff
E. Staging Plan
Answer: D
Question 16.
A. In which service component would you gather information about the customer's network
architecture and network usage requirements?
B. Network Readiness Assessment
C. Operations Readiness Assessment
D. Operations Plan Development
E. Planning Project Kickoff
Answer: B
Question 17.
Which activity is a part of the operations assessment service component in the optimize phase?
A. Design Routing and Switching Infrastructure
B. Confirm Project and Milestone Dates
C. Conduct Gap Analysis
D. Execute Test Cases
Answer: C
Question 18.
Preparing, conducting, and performing a security gap analysis is part of which service component in the plan phase?
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Security Architecture Assessment
C. Planning Project Kickoff
D. Security Administration
Answer: A
Question 19.
In which service component of the operate phase would you help verify the configuration management database?
A. Acceptance Test Plan
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C
Question 20.
During which service component in the optimize phase would you assess the network for vulnerabilities, in order to reduce the risk of attacks?
A. Operations Readiness Assessment
B. Change Management
C. Operations Assessment
D. Security Assessment
E. Technology Assessment
Answer: D
Question 21.
Which activity is part of the technology assessment service component in the optimize phase?
A. Measure the Solution Performance, Availability, Capacity, and Software Functionality
B. Develop the Escalation Plan
C. Test Cases
D. Develop the Project Plan Execute
Answer: A
Question 22.
Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (Choose three.)
A. Security Assessment
B. Security Administration
C. Change Management
D. Operations Assessment
E. Operations Readiness Assessment
F. Technology Assessment
Answer: A, D, F
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named ad. ITCertKeys.com. All domain controllers are configures as DNS servers and have Windows Server 2008 installed. The network has two Active directory-integrated zones: ITCertKeyses.com and ITCertKeysws.com. The company has instructed you to make sure that a user is able to modify records in ITCertKeyses.com while preventing the user to modify the SOA record in ITCertKeysws.com zone.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Modify the permissions of ITCertKeyses.com zone by accessing the DNS Manager Console
B. Configure the user permissions on ITCertKeyses.com to include all the users and configure the
user permissions on ITCertKeysws.com to allow only the administrators group to modify the
records
C. Modify the permission of ITCertKeysws.com zone by accessing the DNS Manager Console
D. Modify the Domain Controllers organizational unit by accessing the Active Directory Users and
Computers console.
E. None of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To allow the user to modify records in ITCertKeyses.com and prevent him/her to modify the SOA record in ITCertKeysws.com zone, you should set the permissions of ITCertKeyses.com through DNS Manager Console. You set the permissions for the users to modify the records in ITCertKeyses.com. Since setting permission on one Active directory-integrated zone, you will be preventing the users to modify anything else on the other zones.
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has an Active Directory Domain Controller. All domain controllers nare configured as DNS servers and have Windows Server 2008 installed. Only one Active-Directory integrated DNS zone is configured on the domain. You have to make sure that outdated DNS records are removed from the DNS zone automatically.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Modify the TTL of the SOA record by accessing the zone properties
B. Disable updates from the zone properties
C. Execute netsh/Reset DNS command from the Command prompt
D. Enable Scavenging by accessing the zone properties
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
To remove the outdated DNS records from the DNS zone automatically, you should enable Scavenging through Zone properties. Scavenging will help you clean up old unused records in DNS. Since "clean up" really means "delete stuff" a good understanding of what you are doing and a healthy respect for "delete stuff" will keep you out of the hot grease. Because deletion is involved there are quite a few safety valves built into scavenging that take a long time to pop. When enabling scavenging, patience is required.
Reference:
http://www.gilham.org/Blog/Lists/Posts/Post.aspx?List=aab85845-88d2-4091-8088-a6bbce0a4304&ID=211
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Active Directory domain. You have configured all domain controllers in the network as DNS servers and they run Windows Server 2008. A domain controller named ITK1 has a standard Primary zone for ITCertKeys.com and a domain controller named ITK2 has a standard secondary zone for ITCertKeys.com. You have to make sure that the replication of the ITCertKeys.com zone is encrypted so you might not loose any zone data.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Create a stub zone and delete the secondary zone
B. Convert the primary zone into an active directory zone and delete the secondary zone
C. Change the interface where DNS server listens on both servers
D. On the standard primary zone, configure zone transfer settings. After that modify the master
servers lists on the secondary zone
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
To make sure that the replication of the ITCertKeys.com zone is encrypted to prevent data loss. You should convert the primary zone into an active directory zone and delete the secondary zone
Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com has a main office and a branch office. All servers in both offices run Windows Server 2008. The offices are connected through a MAN link. ITCertKeys.com has an Active Directory domain that hosts a single domain called maks.ITCertKeys.com. There is a domain controller in the maks. ITCertKeys.com domain called ITK1. It is located in the main office. You have configured ITK1 as a DNS server for maks. ITCertKeys.com DNS zone. It is configured as a standard primary zone. You are instructed to install a new domain controller called ITK2 in the branch office. After installing the domain controller, you install DNS on ITK2. You want to ensure that the DNS service on ITK2 can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event of a MAN link failure.
What should you do to achieve this objective?
A. Configure the DNS on ITK1 to forward requests to ITK2
B. Add a secondary zone named raks. ITCertKeys.com on ITK2
C. Convert maks. ITCertKeys.com on ITK1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone
D. Configure a new stub zone on ITK1 and set the forwarding option to ITK2
Answer: C
Explanation:
To make sure that the DNS service on ITK2 can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event of a MAN link failure, you should convert maks. ITCertKeys.com on ITK1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone. Active Directory-integrated DNS, offers two pluses over traditional zones. For one, the fault tolerance built into Active Directory eliminates the need for primary and secondary nameservers. Effectively, all nameservers using Active Directory-integrated zones are primary nameservers. This has a huge advantage for the use of dynamic DNS as well: namely, the wide availability of nameservers that can accept registrations. Recall that domain controllers and workstations register their locations and availability to the DNS zone using dynamic DNS. In a traditional DNS setup, only one type of nameserver can accept these registrations-the primary server, because it has the only read/write copy of a zone. By creating an Active Directory-integrated zone, all Windows Server 2008 nameservers that store their zone data in Active Directory can accept a dynamic registration, and the change will be propagated using Active Directory multimaster replication.
Reference:
http://safari.adobepress.com/9780596514112/active_directory-integrated_zones
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com has a DNS server with 10 Active Directory Integrated Zones. For auditing purposes, you have to provide copies of the zone files of the DNS server to the security audit group.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Execute ntdsutil > Partition Management > Display commands
B. execute ipconfig/registerdns command
C. execute the dnscmd/ZoneExport command
D. Execute dnscmd/Zoneoutput command
Answer: C
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com has a domain controller named EDC11 that runs Windows Server 2008. It is configured as a DNS server for ITCertKeys.com. You install the DNS server role on a member server named S1 and after this; you create a standard secondary zone for ITCertKeys.com. You configured EDC11 as the master server for the zone.
What should you do to make sure that S1 receives zone updates from EDC11?
A. On Server1, add a conditional forwarder.
B. On DC1, modify the zone transfer settings for the contoso.com zone.
C. Add the Server1 computer account to the DNSUpdateProxy group.
D. On DC1, modify the permissions of contoso.com zone.
Answer: B
Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a network consisting of an Active Directory forest named ebd.com. All servers have Windows Server 2008. All domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. The ebd.com DNS zone is stored in ForestDnsZones Active directory partition. A member server contains a standard primary DNS zone for eb.ebd.com. You need to make sure that all domain controllers can resolve names for eb.ebd.com.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Create a delegation in the ebd.com zone
B. Change the properties of SOA record in the eb.ebd.com zone
C. Add NS record in the ebd.com zone
D. Create a secondary zone on a Global catalog server
Answer: A
Question 8.
ITCertKeys.com has a main office and single branch office in another state. With a single Active-Directory domain forest, ITCertKeys.com has two domain controllers named ITK1 and ITK2 . Both of the domain controllers run Windows Server 2008. The branch office has a Read-only domain controller (RODC) named ITK3. While all domain controllers have DNS server role installed, they are configured as Active-Directory-integrated zones. All DNS zones are configured to allow secure updates only. You want to enable dynamic DNS updates on ITK3.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. On DC1, create an active partition and configure the partition to store Active Directory-
integrated zones
B. Un-install the Active Directory Domain services on ITK3 and reinstall it as a writeable domain
controller
C. Reconfigure RODC on ITK3 to allow dynamic updates
D. Execute dnscmd/ZoneResetType command on ITK3
Answer: B
Explanation:
To enable the dynamic DNS updates on ITK3, you should uninstall the Active Directory Domain services on ITK3 and reinstall it as a writeable domain controller. A writeable domain controller performs originating updates and outbound replication.
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc207937.aspx
Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com has a huge network that consists of an Active Directory Forest containing a single domain. Windows Server 2008 is installed on all domain controllers. They are configured as DNS servers. ITCertKeys.com has an active directory-integrated zone with two Active Directory sites. Each site contains five domain controllers. You added a new NS record to the zone. You have to make sure that all domain controllers immediately receive the new NS record.
What should you do to achieve this task?
A. Execute repadmin/syncall from the command prompt
B. Reload the zone from the DNS Manager console
C. Create an SOA record from the DNS Manager console
D. Shutdown and then, restart the DNS server service from services snap-in
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 10
ITCertKeys.com has an Active Directory domain named comm. ITCertKeys.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named ITK1 and ITK2 . Both have the DNS server role installed. You install a new DNS server named ns. ITCertKeys.com on the perimeter network. You configure ITK1 to forward all unresolved name requests to ns. ITCertKeys.com. But you discover that the DNS forward option is unavailable on ITK2. You have to configure DNS forwarding on ITK2 server to forward unresolved name requests to ns. ITCertKeys.com server.
Which of the following two actions should you perform to achieve this task?
A. Clean the DNS cache on ITK2
B. configure conditional forwarding on ITK2
C. Delete the Root zone on ITK2
D. Add zone forwarding on ITK2
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Switches ITK1 and ITK2 are connected as shown below:
Study the Exhibit carefully. Which ports could safely be configured with Port Fast? (Choose two)
A. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/2
B. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/2
C. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/3
D. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/3
E. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/1
F. None of the ports should use port fast
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Using Port Fast:
1. Immediately brings an interface configured as an access or trunk port to the forwarding state from a blocking state, bypassing the listening and learning states
2. Normally used for single server/workstation can be enabled on a trunk
So, Port fast can only be enabled to a switch port attaching to workstation or a server.
Reference: http://www.911networks.com/node/273
Question 2,
You need to configure two ITCertKeys switches to exchange VLAN information.
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between these two switches?
A. STP
B. 802.1Q
C. VLSM
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. HSRP
G. None of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Cisco proprietary Layer 2 messaging protocol that manages the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. To do this VTP carries VLAN information to all the switches in a VTP domain. VTP advertisements can be sent over ISL, 802.1q, IEEE 802.10 and LANE trunks. VTP traffic is sent over the management VLAN (VLAN1), so all VLAN trunks must be configured to pass VLAN1. VTP is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst Family products.
Question 3.
ITCertKeys has implemented the use of the Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP).
Which statement below accurately describes a benefit of doing this?
A. VTP will allow physically redundant links while preventing switching loops
B. VTP will allow switches to share VLAN configuration information
C. VTP will allow a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN
D. VTP will allow for routing between VLANs
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Question 4.
Two ITCertKeys switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below:
Exhibit:
Based on the information shown above, what will be the result of issuing the following commands:
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30
A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
the Switch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
the Switch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on
as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on
as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN.
Here's a hint: if you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches. Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other switch.
Question 5.
A ITCertKeys switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet.
What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located on the same LAN segment. Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or interaction with other workgroups.
Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead of physically relocating devices. Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later. A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches. Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.
Question 6.
A new switch is installed in the ITCertKeys network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network.
Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply).
A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode.
B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain.
C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge.
D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version.
E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version.
F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging.
G. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks.
Answer: A, B, F, G
Explanation:
For the VLAN information to pass automatically throughout the network, VTP must be set up correctly. In order for VTP to work, a VTP server is needed, the VLAN's must be in the same VTP domain, and the encapsulation on each end of the trunk must both set to either 802.1Q or ISL.
Incorrect Answers:
C. Root bridges and other functions of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) have no impact of the VTP configuration.
D, E. There is only one version of VTP and STP.
Question 7.
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network.
What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role of the Root Bridge?
A. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.
B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
C. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex
operation.
D. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of
root bridge.
E. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
F. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
For all switches in a network to agree on a loop-free topology, a common frame of reference must exist. This reference point is called the Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is chosen by an election process among all connected switches. Each switch has a unique Bridge ID (also known as the bridge priority) that it uses to identify itself to other switches. The Bridge ID is an 8-byte value. 2 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for a Bridge Priority field, which is the priority or weight of a switch in relation to all other switches. The other 6 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for the MAC Address field, which can come from the Supervisor module, the backplane, or a pool of 1024 addresses that are assigned to every Supervisor or backplane depending on the switch model. This address is hardcoded, unique, and cannot be changed.
The election process begins with every switch sending out BPDUs with a Root Bridge ID equal to its own Bridge ID as well as a Sender Bridge ID. The latter is used to identify the source of the BPDU message. Received BPDU messages are analyzed for a lower Root Bridge ID value. If the BPDU message has a Root Bridge ID (priority) of the lower value than the switch's own Root Bridge ID, it replaces its own Root Bridge ID with the Root Bridge ID announced in the BPDU. If two Bridge Priority values are equal, then the lower MAC address takes preference.
Question 8.
Which of the protocols below, operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. RIP
B. STP
C. IGRP
D. CDP
E. VTP
F. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
STP (spanning tree protocol) operates on layer 2 to prevent loops in switches and bridges.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C. RIP and IGRP are routing protocols, which are used at layer 3 to maintain a loop free routed environment.
D. CDP does indeed operate at layer 2, but it doest not provide for a loop free topology. CDP is used by Cisco devices to discover information about their neighbors.
E. VTP is the VLAN Trunking Protocol, used to pass VLAN information through switches. It relies on the STP mechanism to provide a loop free network.
Question 9.
By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost?
A. It is the individual link cost based on latency
B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth
C. It is the total hop count
D. It is dynamically determined based on load
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
"The STP cost is an accumulated total path cost based on the available bandwidth of each of the links."
Reference: Sybex CCNA Study Guide 4th Edition (Page 323)
Note: A path cost value is given to each port. The cost is typically based on a guideline established as part of 802.1d. According to the original specification, cost is 1,000 Mbps (1 gigabit per second) divided by the bandwidth of the segment connected to the port. Therefore, a 10 Mbps connection would have a cost of (1,000/10) 100. To compensate for the speed of networks increasing beyond the gigabit range, the standard cost has been slightly modified.
The new cost values are: You should also note that the path cost can be an arbitrary value assigned by the network administrator, instead of one of the standard cost values.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: The STP process does not take into account the latency or load of a link. STP does not recalculate the link costs dynamically.
C. Hop counts are used by RIP routers to calculate the cost of a route to a destination. The STP process resides at layer 2 of the OSI model, where hop counts are not considered.
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments.
B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
E. To prevent routing loops in networks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
STP is used in LANs with redundant paths or routes to prevent loops in a layer 2 switched or bridged LAN.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: The primary purpose of STP is to prevent loops, not for monitoring or management of switches or VLANs.
D. VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple collision domains, but the STP process alone does not do this.
E. Routers are used to prevent routing loops at layer 3 of the OSI model. STP operates at layer 2.
Question 11.
Which two of the following values does STP take into consideration when it elects the root bridge? (Select two answer choices)
A. The BPDU version number
B. The access layer bridge setting
C. The Bridge ID
D. The spanning-tree update number
E. The bridge priority
F. The VLAN number
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
The bridges elect a root bridge based on the bridge IDs in the BPDUs. The root bridge is the bridge with the lowest numeric value for the bridge ID. Because the two part bridge ID starts with the priority value, essentially the bridge with the lowest priority becomes the root. For instance, if one bridge has priority 100, and another bridge has priority 200, the bridge with priority 100 wins, regardless of what MAC address was used to create the bridge ID or each bridge/switch.
Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA ICND Exam Certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-083-X) Page 39
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Question 1. In a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch, in which slots can the Sup2 card be installed? A. slots 1 and 2 B. slots 1 through 9 C. any slot D. slots 3 and 4 E. slots 5 and 6 Answer: E Question 2. Which two standards enable the PVDM module on the ISR to provide secure communications with IP Phones? (Choose two.) A. SRTP B. AES encryption C. MD5 hash D. IPSec E. RSA signature F. RUDP Answer: A, B Question 3. Which of these features makes a Cisco 7300 Series Router the preferred choice when hardware-accelerated IP processing is required? A. NPE-G2 network processing engine B. high-speed switching bus C. Parallel Express Forwarding (PXF) D. optimized port adapter-to-port adapter traffic flow Answer: C Question 4. You have a customer that is looking to mitigate DDOS attacks. Which two of the following Cisco security products would you recommend to meet this need? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IOS Firewall B. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector Module C. Cisco Firewall Services Module D. Cisco IPS E. Cisco ASA F. Cisco Anomaly Guard Module Answer: E, F Question 5. What queue-scheduling algorithm does the Optical Services Module PXF use to provide QoS features? A. FIFO B. Modified Deficit C. Versatile Traffic Management Services D. Weighted Round Robin Answer: C Question 6. What are the three most common transport network options for connecting a branch office network to the campus core? (Choose three.) A. radio links B. PSTN C. Internet D. MPLS VPN E. LAN F. Private WAN Answer: C, D, F Question 7. Which security feature of a Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switch can be used to prevent clients from acquiring an IP address from unauthorized servers? A. MAC address notification B. DHCP snooping C. port security D. 802.1X in conjunction with Cisco Secure ACS Answer: B Question 8. A small business wants to deploy IP telephony across its enterprise but lacks the expertise and staffing to plan and deploy the service. Its concerns include cost, ensuring voice quality, and time to deployment. Given only these requirements, what is the appropriate option to recommend? A. Use CBWFQ. B. Configure NBAR for stateful packet inspection. C. Configure each router to mark VoIP packets as CoS 5. D. Provision the network using AutoQoS VoIP. Answer: D Question 9. You are required to upgrade the network of a multistory branch office building to support Cisco 7970 IP Phones throughout. Given that each phone uses 15.4 W, how many phones can a Cisco Catalyst 3750 support using Cisco Intelligent Power Management in a 48-port PoE configuration? A. 8 B. 32 C. 48 D. 16 E. 24 Answer: E Question 10. In the Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch, which slots support the Supervisor Engine 720 and Supervisor Engine 32? A. slots 7 and 8 B. any slot C. slots 5 and 6 D. slots 1 and 2 E. slots 12 and 13 Answer: A
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