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Question 1.
Which two must be in an ejb-jar file, either by inclusion of reference? (Choose two.)
A. an enterprise archive(.ear)file
B. a deployment descriptor in the format defined by the EJB 2.0 specification
C. the class files for the classes that implement the home and remote interfaces.
D. The class files for the interfaces and super interfaces used by the bean, except J2SE or J2EE
interfaces
E. The class files for the stub classes of the EJBHome and EJOBject interfaces, if remote
interfaces are deployed for the bean
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Exhibit: *MISSING*
All beans involved use container-managed transactions and all methods are marked as Required.
At runtime, methodB is unable to communicate with its resource and calls the setRollback Only method.
What is the result?
A. JMS message redelivery semantics will apply.
B. The rollback will propagate to the sender of the massage.
C. The bean’s onMassage method will reattempt the sequence.
D. Transactions started by the onMassage method will always commit.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which exception can be thrown by the findByPrimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using container-managed persistence?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which exception can be thrown by the findByPRkimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using container-managed persistence?
A. javax.ejb.EJBException
B. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException
C. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException
D. javax.ejb.ObjectNOtFoundException
Answer: D
Question 5.
Given:
8. <session>
9. <resource-ref>
10.
11. <resource-ref>
12. <session>
Which two elements must be included in the <resource-ref> tag? (Choose two.)
A. <res-type>
B. <res-ref-name>
C. resource-env-ref>
D. <environment-resource>
Answer: A, B
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Please email me latest dump for exam 70-296. malikamanatali@yahoo.com Thanks
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I know that the exam changed around 7/1/2006. Does anyone have an updated dump since the change. Thanks!
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Please Send me the lastest dumps of 642-861..advance thanks
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Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Roam About Client Utility?
A. Monitor the amount of collisions in the wireless network before enabling the RTS/CTS Protocol
B. Monitor SNR levels and signal and noise levels
C. Monitor the wireless performance of the client Roam About 802.11b PC Card
D. View and modify the configuration on the Roam About 802.11b PC Card
Answer: A
Question 2.
IEEE 802.11 stipulates the use of which security measure to make the wireless network at least as secure as a normal wired LAN?
A. Host key generation
B. WEP Encryption
C. 802.1X Authentication
D. A lockable security box for the Access Point
Answer: B
Question 3.
What must be configured before an Access Point can be successfully upgraded via the console?
A. Wireless Network Parameters
B. Image files
C. TFTP/BootP server
D. The "Reset to Factory Defaults" parameter
Answer: C
Question 4.
Where would you look to find what MIBs are supported on the Roam About Access Points?
A. Firmware release notes
B. Guide to Wireless LANs
C. The Help file in your NMS
D. In the device .cfg file
Answer: A
Question 5.
What is a wireless device called when its transmissions cannot be sensed by another wireless device or devices in the network?
A. Hidden Client
B. Hidden Station
C. Rogue Client
D. Rogue Station
Answer: B
Question 6.
What does the Roam About employ, by default, to confirm successful frame delivery?
A. The receiving station sends a MAC level acknowledgement
B. Resolution by upper layer protocols (i.e., TCP) at the sending station
C. The sending station sends a source frame to verify delivery
D. There is no method of ensuring successful delivery
Answer: A
Question 7.
What media access method does the Roam About use?
A. CSMA/CD
B. Beacon exchange
C. Binary Sequential Back off
D. CSMA/CA
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following does NOT affect the size of a cell?
A. Network utilization
B. Radio frequency noise
C. Transmit speeds
D. Humidity
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following does NOT affect the size of a cell?
A. Network utilization
B. Radio frequency noise
C. Transmit speeds
D. Humidity
Answer: D
Question 10.
For Rapid Rekeying to be employed, what must be enabled and configured on the Access Point?
A. Secure Shell
B. 802.1X Authentication
C. Dynamic Key Distribution
D. User Personalized Networking
Answer: B
Question 11.
When configuring LAN-to-LAN Endpoint, which of the following do you need?
A. Wired MAC Address of the remote Access Point
B. Wireless MAC Address of the remote Access Point
C. IP Address of the remote Access Point
D. Different channels configured on both Access Points
Answer: B
Question 12.
To upgrade firmware and Boot ROMs, go to which window in AP Manager?
A. Filtering
B. Hardware
C. Reload
D. Discover
Answer: C
Question 13.
IEEE 802.11 stipulates the use of which security measure to make the wireless network at least as secure as a normal wired LAN?
A. Host key generation
B. WEP Encryption
C. 802.1X Authentication
D. A lockable security box for the Access Point
Answer: B
Question 14.
With Secure Access enabled on an AP with an IEEE 802.11b PC Card installed, which of the following is true?
A. The AP allows access to wireless clients that use "ANY" as the wireless network name
B. The AP allows access to wireless clients that leave the wireless network name configuration
blank
C. The AP denies access to wireless clients that do not provide the proper access password
D. The AP denies access to wireless clients that do not use the correct wireless network name
Answer: D
Question 15.
Ad Hoc Mode is an example of which wireless topology?
A. EESS? External Extended Service Set
B. BSS? Basic Service Set
C. IBSS? Independent Basic Service Set
D. ESS? Extended Service Set
Answer: C
Question 16.
When should an Upline Dump be enabled for the AP 2000?
A. When configuring the AP for an upgrade to its firmware
B. When troubleshooting a poor SNR
C. When copying configurations from one AP to another
D. When requested by a Roam About service representative
Answer: D
Question 17.
How can you tell whether or not you are in a secure web management session?
A. The web address begins with https://
B. A "Secure Web" banner is displayed
C. A different password is required for access
D. There is no way to tell
Answer: A
Question 18.
When configuring LAN-to-LAN Endpoint, which of the following do you need?
A. Wired MAC Address of the remote Access Point
B. Wireless MAC Address of the remote Access Point
C. IP Address of the remote Access Point
D. Different channels configured on both Access Points
Answer: B
Question 19.
Which AP Manager utility is used during LAN-to-LAN installations to determine signal strength?
A. Authentication
B. Link test
C. Integrity Check
D. Site Monitor
Answer: B
Question 20.
Ad Hoc Mode is an example of which wireless topology?
A. EESS? External Extended Service Set
B. BSS? Basic Service Set
C. IBSS? Independent Basic Service Set
D. ESS? Extended Service Set
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router's route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for forwarding
data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routingprotocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in the
route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active route
in the route table.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to the
router's neighbors.
Answer: D
Question 4.
What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. Network address, mask and metric
B. Network address and metric
C. Prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A
Question 5.
Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers.
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other.
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other.
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same
autonomous system.
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is
required if they are.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What message is issued by a neighbor as a response to a valid Open?
A. Keepalive
B. Open
C. Exchange
D. Notification
E. Ping
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number
B. The local AS number
C. The hold time
D. Thekeepalive timer
E. The Router ID
Answer: D
Question 8.
The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor.
B. BGP can exchange update, notification andkeepalive messages with that neighbor
C. If thekeepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts its
keepalive timer
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state toOpenConfirm
E. Established is the operational state
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code
B. Local Preference
C. MED
D. AS Path
E. (a) and (d)
F. (b) and (d)
Answer: E
Question 10.
Which of the following is true, based on the AS Path list shown here? 65206 65111 65100
A. AS 65206 originated the route
B. AS 65111 is a transit AS
C. AS 65100 is a transit AS
D. AS 65100 originated the route
E. (b) and (d)
F. (a) and (c)
Answer: E
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Question 1.
A volume can contain up to___snapshots concurrently.
A. 125
B. 225
C. 255
D. Depends on capacity and number of disk drives
Answer: C
Question 2.
You can unlicense the cluster feature only in
A. normal, disabled
B. normal, enabled
C. takeover, disabled
D. takeover, enabled
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which one of the following keywords alone can be used to convert an asynchronous mirror to be synchornous?
A. cksum
B. src_con
C. sync
D. outstanding
Answer: C
Question 4.
What command would you enter to restore the /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc file from a snapshot to the /vol/flexvolO/home directory?
A. snap restore -r vol /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
B. snap restore -t /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
C. snap restore -t file -r /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
D. snap restore -s /vol/flexvolO/home/rc /vol/flexvolO/etc/rc
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which three of the following configurations would increase data transfer rates for traditional volume SnapMirror?
A. The destination and source contain disks of the same size.
B. The destination and source contain RAID groups of the same size.
C. The destination and source storage appliances are no further than 30 meters apart.
D. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Correct; A, B, D
Answer: D
Question 6.
The snapvault update command is only available on the secondary system.
A. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups. Correct; A, B, D
B. True
C. False
Answer: A
Question 7.
What is the format for snapvault schedule?
A. YYYY-MM-DD
B. crontab format
C. cnt[@day_Hst][@hour_list]
D. List of dates in ISO Date format
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which one of the following commands is used to specify the destination appliance(s) that are allowed to replicate (pul data from the source appliance?
A. options snapmirror.allow
B. snapmirror release
C. snapmirror initialize
D. options snapmirror.access
Answer: D
Question 9.
Open System SnapVault agents can be installed on all non-Network Appliance platforms.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which one of the following statements apply to the Free Space Estimator utility?
A. This utility determines if there is sufficient space on the secondary volume to perform a transfer
B. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the primary to perform an
OSSV transfer
C. This utility run automatically after each transfer
D. This utility must be enabled on the secondary storage system
Answer: B
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Question 1.
How many Zone Sets can be Activated per Fabric using SAN Manager?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Question 2.
In an environment with hosts already accessing devices, which three [3] tasks must be performed to add volume access to a host?
A. Add access to the new devices on the HBAs
B. Unmask the devices from the HBAs
C. Refresh the VCMDB
D. Initialize the VCMDB
E. Backup VCMDB
F. Commit the masking to VCMDB
Answer: A, B, E
Question 3.
How many Bytes in length is the Fibre Channel Address field?
NOTE: Type in your answer in digits (0, 12, 321, etc.). Do NOT spell out your answer (one, two, etc.).
Answer:
Answer: 3
Question 4.
Which item changes when a link is physically moved from one switch port to another?
A. World Wide name.
B. N_Port Physical address.
C. NAT Table address.
D. AL_PA Address.
Answer: B
Question 5.
What is the Hexadecimal address of the Name Server in a Fabric?
A. FFFFFE
B. FFFFFC
C. FFFFFF
D. FFFFFD
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which Protocol is characterized by distance, connectivity and speed?
A. Escon
B. Fibre
C. SCSI
D. Bus & Tag
Answer: B
Question 7.
Where do you find information about logged in ports?
A. Directory Server
B. Port Login Table
C. Name Server Database
D. Fabric Login Service
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the correct command line syntax to upgrade a Connectrix MDS 9216 switch to firmware version 1.3.2a?
A. install all system bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
B. install all bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
C. install all kickstart :m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
D. install all kickstart bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the factory default user identification and password for logging into a B-Series switch?
A. user - admin password - password
B. user - admin password - admin
C. user - Administrator password - password
D. user - root password - root
Answer: A
Question 10.
To which device on a Connectrix Manager Service Processor does the automated backup of the d:\ECFM directory go to?
A. DVD drive
B. Zip Drive
C. Floppy drive
D. CDROM drive
Answer: B
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